tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3891434218564545511.post50118788693909413..comments2024-03-28T13:23:50.623-05:00Comments on Alexander Pruss's Blog: Infinite causal histories and causal loopsAlexander R Prusshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/05989277655934827117noreply@blogger.comBlogger9125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3891434218564545511.post-18650096637207899112015-10-07T13:11:01.328-05:002015-10-07T13:11:01.328-05:00I guess I just don't see that paradoxes that r...I guess I just don't see that paradoxes that result from infinite cooperation. Are you thinking that the Grim Reaper argument is a case of this?Dominic Bolinhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/00795623267442191952noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3891434218564545511.post-80387467844174087742015-10-07T09:57:39.498-05:002015-10-07T09:57:39.498-05:00Yes, there is a relevant difference. But both sort...Yes, there is a relevant difference. But both sorts of violations of causal finitism make for paradoxes.Alexander R Prusshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/05989277655934827117noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3891434218564545511.post-92049990404433138472015-10-07T07:15:59.037-05:002015-10-07T07:15:59.037-05:00I'm wondering if there isn't a relevant di...I'm wondering if there isn't a relevant difference between infinite cooperation and the other types of causal nexuses. Here's what I'm thinking: it seems to me that the problem with (1) and (3) is that in each case you never get an explanation of the given node, and you never get an explanation because the causality of each of the contributing causes is itself explained by another cause, ad infinitum. Thus, there is neither a first cause nor a totality of causality that could explain the given node. But (2) seems a little different: in that case, each cause does have its own causality (either by being a first cause, or by having a first cause) independent of the other causes with which it cooperates. So it seems like there is a sense in which there is a totality of causality in the case of infinite cooperation that is impossible in the cases of an infinite regress or loop.Dominic Bolinhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/00795623267442191952noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3891434218564545511.post-5251841260028855452015-09-29T10:03:36.354-05:002015-09-29T10:03:36.354-05:00In causation of change, one thing causes a new att...In causation of change, one thing causes a new attribute of another thing.<br /><br />The nodes are whatever the relata of causation are. That may include substances, events (especially on the right hand side), tropes, etc. :-)Alexander R Prusshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/05989277655934827117noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3891434218564545511.post-241961084376370452015-09-29T09:58:41.299-05:002015-09-29T09:58:41.299-05:00I didn't realize you were confining your point...I didn't realize you were confining your point to causation-of-existence. What about causation-of-change? (Maybe that's "interaction.") Infinite chains and loops don't seem any less counterintuitive in those cases. Is there a similar principle ruling them out? (And then: what are the nodes?)Heath Whitehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/13535886546816778688noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3891434218564545511.post-72266350441647454992015-09-29T09:36:46.771-05:002015-09-29T09:36:46.771-05:00Heath:
Interesting, but I don't think interac...Heath:<br /><br />Interesting, but I don't think interaction is partial causation. But you did inspire me to add this to the relevant part of the book:<br /><br />In the above, I took the directed lines to be partial causation relations. We do<br />need to, however, be cautious. If two spouses cook meals for each other, then<br />each is a cause of a part (some cells, say) of the other. If $x$'s being a cause<br />of a part of $y$ is sufficient for $x$'s being a partial cause of $y$, then this<br />is a loop violating \dref{unified}. And when you eat, you become a cause of a part<br />of yourself, which would seem to be a case of partial self-causation.<br />However, we should not take being a cause of a part of to be sufficient for being a<br />partial cause of. We wouldn't say, for instance, that the D-Day Invasion was a partial<br />cause of World War II, though it was a cause of many battles that are a part of<br />World War II. There are cases where by being a cause of a part of something one is a<br />partial cause of it, but they are cases where one is a cause of something like one of<br />the initiating parts. For instance, a sperm is a partial cause of an organism by<br />being a cause of part of the first cell, and each German officer who ordered an initial part<br />of the invasion of Poland was a partial cause of World War II. To be a partial cause of<br />a substance- or event-like node is to be a partial cause of the existence or occurrence of<br />the node.Alexander R Prusshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/05989277655934827117noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3891434218564545511.post-78884820906575825922015-09-29T09:09:24.784-05:002015-09-29T09:09:24.784-05:00Alex, have you given any thought to what a node is...Alex, have you given any thought to what a node is? If it is a substance, then two substances can interact with each other easily (two-body gravitation problem, for example) and you will get loops quite easily. The natural thing to say is that nodes are events. But that indicates that you should believe in event-causation, not substance-causation. <br /><br />I have no brief for infinite causal chains or loops, I'm just wondering how this squares with other things. Heath Whitehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/13535886546816778688noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3891434218564545511.post-6465722618376513302015-09-29T08:31:40.932-05:002015-09-29T08:31:40.932-05:00The "final cause" understood in this way...The "final cause" understood in this way isn't really a cause. When A acts to achieve B, so that B is the "final cause" of A, then the existence of B doesn't do anything to explain A's activity. To see this, consider a case of final causation: a dog drinks to hydrate the body. The hydration of the body is the final cause. But suppose that the dog is sick and it vomits before the drink hydrates the body. It is still true that the hydration of the body was the final cause of its drinking. But in this case the hydration of the body never occurs. So the "final cause" in this sense need not even exist to explain the activity. But real causation is a relation between real relata. A final cause understood like this is a cause only in a manner of speaking.<br /><br />It is better to understand final causation where the final cause is something like a representation of the effect the causation is directed towards, a representation found in the efficient cause. Alexander R Prusshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/05989277655934827117noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3891434218564545511.post-34390023810114360462015-09-29T08:15:15.085-05:002015-09-29T08:15:15.085-05:00The problem with this is that it is not true in ge...The problem with this is that it is not true in general. An efficient cause can be the efficient cause of the final cause, and the final cause is the final cause of the efficient cause. So you have a causal loop. The same thing happens with material and formal causality.<br /><br />I agree that you cannot have a loop or an infinite sequence if your chain of causality is all of the same type.Anonymousnoreply@blogger.com