Aristotle writes at times as if the fact that something is non-instrumentally good for one makes it a greater good than merely instrumental goods. That’s surely false. Among the non-instrumental goods are many quite trivial goods: knowing how many blades of grass there are on one’s front lawn, enjoying a quick game of Space Invaders, etc.
Can you possibly elaborate more? Instrumental goods are only good via their relation to some non instrumental good right? If that's the case then I don't see how an instrumental good in itself wouldn't be of lesser value than the good which the instrumental good is directed toward.
ReplyDeleteI think you may be looking for something deeper than I was saying. An instrumental good could be instrumental to a great final good, and hence would be greater than a small final good.
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