There could still be a persistence-based cosmological argument even if there were existential inertia

Suppose that today at noon, Felix the cat enters a time machine and travels back to the time of the dinosaurs, where he spends the rest of his life hunting small reptiles. According to the doctrine of existential inertia, objects have a blockable tendency to continue existing.

Question: If Felix has existential inertia, was his inertial tendency to continue existing blocked at noon when he time-traveled to the past, and hence failed to exist past today’s noon?

My intuition is that the answer is negative. Existential inertia seems to me to be about “having a future” and today at noon, Felix does have a future, even if that future is in the distant past. In other words, if there is such a thing as existential inertia, it concerns what I call “internal” rather than “external” time.

Beyond mere intuition, here is a reason for a defender of existential inertia to agree with me. If existential inertia concerns external time, then in a relativistic world it is a doctrine that says that an object that exists at point z of spacetime has a tendency to exist somewhere or other in the forwards lightcone centered on z. But there is something odd about a metaphysical principle, like existential inertia is supposed to be, that impels an object to continue to exist in some location or other in some infinite set of locations (say, the infinite number of locations in the forward lightcone one second away from the present in some reference frame), without impelling the object to exist in any particular location, or even imposing any kind of probability distribution on where it is to exist. Moreover, it is not clear why the forward lightcone would be so metaphysically special that a fundamental metaphysical principle would coordinate with lightcones so neatly.

Perhaps this is not completely convincing. But it has some legs. There is thus some reason to think that existential inertia applies to internal rather than external time. But if so, then existential inertia has not removed all that needs to be explained about persistence. For a normal cat not only tends to continue to exist in its internal-time future, but also tends to continue to exist in its external-time future, since normally there is no time travel. And this external-time persistence is not explained by existential inertia, if existential inertia concerns the external-time future. So there is a persistence to explain, and theism offers an explanation. There is still room for an argument for theism from persistence.

Here is a closely related explanatory problem: Why is it that internal and external time tend to be correlated, so that internal-time persistence tends to imply external-time persistence?

Suppose that, contrary to my relativity theory intuitions, one insists that existential inertia concerns external-time persistence rather than internal-time persistence? Then there is still something to be explained: the correlation between internal and external time.

A version of the cosmological argument from preservation

Suppose that all immediate causation is simultaneous. The only way to make this fit with the obvious fact that there is diachronic causation is to make diachronic causation be mediate. And there is one standard way of making mediate diachronic causation out of immediate synchronic causation: temporally extended causal relata. Suppose that A lasts from time 0 to time 3, B lasts from time 2 to time 5, and C lasts from time 4 to time 10 (these can be substances or events). Then A can synchronically cause B at time 2 or 3, B can synchronically cause C at time 4 or 5, and one can combine the two immediate synchronic causal relations into a mediate diachronic causal relation between A and C, even though there is no time at which we have both A and C.

The problem with this approach is explaining the persistence of A, B and C over time. If we believe in irreducibly diachronic causation, then we can say that B’s existence at time 2 causes B’s existence at time 3, and so on. But this move is not available to the defender of purely simultaneous causation, except maybe at the cost of an infinite regress: maybe B’s existence from time 2.00 to time 2.75 causes B’s existence from time 2.50 to time 3.00; but now we ask about the causal relationship between B’s existence at time 2.00 and time 2.75.

So if we are to give a causal explanation of B’s persistence from time 2 to time 5, it will have to be in terms of the simultaneous causal efficacy of some other persisting entity. But this leads to a regress that is intuitively vicious.

Thus, we must come at the end to at least one persisting entity E such that E’s persistence from some time t₁ to some time t₂ has no causal explanation. And if we started our question with asking about the persistence of something that persists over some times today, then these times t₁ and t₂ are today.

Even if we allow for some facts to be unexplained contingent “brute” facts, the persistence of ordinary objects over time shouldn’t be like that. Moreover, it doesn’t seem right to suppose that the ultimate explanations of the persistence of objects involve objects whose own persistence is brute. For that makes it ultimately be a brute fact that reality as a whole persists, a brute and surprising fact.

So, plausibly, we have to say that although E’s persistence from t₁ to t₂ has no causal explanation, it has some other kind of explanation. The most plausible candidate for this kind of explanation is that E is imperishable: that it is logically impossible for E to perish.

Hence, if all immediate causation is simultaneous, very likely there is something imperishable. And the imperishable entity or entities then cause things to exist at the time at which they exist, thereby explaining their persistence.

On the theory that God is the imperishable entity, the above explains why for Aquinas preservation and creation are the same.

(It’s a pity that I don’t think all immediate causation is simultaneous.)

Problem: Suppose E immediately makes B persist from time 2 to time 4, by immediately causing it to exist at all the times from 2 to 4. Surely, though, E exists at time 4 because it existed at time 2. And this “because” is hard to explain.

Response: We can say that B exists at time 4 because of its esse (or act of being) at time 2, provided that (a) B’s esse at time 2 is its being caused by E to exist at time 2, and (b) E causes B to exist at time 4 because (non-causally because) E caused B to exist at time 2. But once we say that B exists at time 4 because of its very own esse at time 2, it seems we’ve saved the “because” claim in the problem.