Friday, August 8, 2025

Consciousness and the open future

Plausibly:

  1. There is a “minimal humanly observable duration” (mhod) such that a human cannot have a conscious state—say, a pain—shorter than an mhod, but can have a conscious state that’s an mhod long.

The “cannot” here is nomic possibility rather than metaphysical possibility.

Let δ denote an mhod. Now, suppose that you feel a pain precisely from t0 to t2. Then t2 ≥ t0 + δ. Now, let t1 = t0 + δ/2. Then you feel a pain at t1. But at t1, you only felt a pain for half an mhod. Thus:

  1. At t1, that you feel pain depends on substantive facts about your mental state at times after t1.

For if your head were suddenly zapped by a giant laser a quarter of an mhod after t1, then you would not have felt a pain at t1, because you would have been in a position to feel pain only from t0 to t0 + (3/4)δ.

But in a universe full of quantum indeterminacy:

  1. These substantive facts are contingent.

After all, your brain could just fail a quarter of an mhod after t1 due to a random quantum event.

But:

  1. Given an open future, at t1 there are no substantive contingent facts about the future.

Thus:

  1. Given an open future, at t1 there is no fact that you are conscious.

Which is absurd!

5 comments:

William said...

There can be a state you are in where you are conscious but do not notice a fleeting pain. This would indeed mean no pain, but would not mean no consciousness (at all). Just no consciousness (of the pain). You could modify this to say that it is needed for a pain to be felt for a certain length of time for it to wake us up (regaining consciousness on the alertness axis), and it could still be true, but just not exactly the way the OP implies.

Alexander R Pruss said...

I don't think there is such a thing as a pain you don't feel.

William said...

Reworded:
There can be a state you are in where you are conscious but do not notice a fleeting, potentially pain-inducing signal from your body as pain. This would indeed mean no pain, but would not mean no consciousness (at all). Just no consciousness that includes a feeling of the pain.

You could modify this to say that it could be needed for a potentially pain-inducing signal to occur for a certain length of time for it to wake us up (regaining consciousness on the alertness axis), and it could still be true. However, once you remove equivocation between consciousness of pain and consciousness of anything, the absurdity does not seem to remain for me.

Alexander R Pruss said...

By "conscious state" in 1, I meant a *specific* conscious state, such as a pain or a seeing of a red patch, rather than just the state of being conscious.

John said...

Our conscious states include not only perception of color and pain, but of time duration itself. In this example, I could receive a pain signal from t_0 to t_0+δ. Then starting at t_0+δ, I have the conscious state of having had the pain starting at t_0.

That the mhod restriction applies to the internal content of the conscious state I can believe, but I am not sure it applies to the external duration of the conscious state.