Let T0 be ZFC. Let Tn be Tn − 1 plus the claim Con(Tn − 1) that Tn − 1 is consistent. Let Tω be the union of all the Tn for finite n.
Here’s a fun puzzle. It seems that Tω should be able to prove its own consistency by the following reasoning:
If Tω is inconsistent, then for some finite n we have Tn inconsistent. But Con(Tn) is true for every finite n.
This sure sounds convincing! It took me a while to think through what’s wrong here. The problem is that although for every finite n, Tω can prove Con(Tn), it does not follow that Tω can prove that for every finite n we have Con(Tn).
To make this point perhaps more clear, assume Tn is consistent for all n. Then Con(Tn) cannot be proved from Tn. Thus any finite subset of Tω is consistent with the claim that for some finite n the theory Tn is inconsistent. Hence by compactness there is a model of Tω according to which for some finite n the theory Tn is inconsistent. This model will have a non-standard natural number sequence, and “finite” of course will be understood according to that sequence.
Here’s another way to make the point. The theory Tω proves Tω consistent if and only if Tω is consistent according to every model M. But the sentence “Tω is consistent according to M” is ambiguous between understanding “Tω” internally and externally to M. If we understand it internally to M, we mean that the set that M thinks consists of the axioms of ZFC together with the ω-iteration of consistency claims is consistent. And this cannot be proved if Tω is consistent. But if we understand “Tω” externally to M, we mean that upon stipulating that S is the object in M’s universe whose membersM correspond naturally to the membersV of Tω (where V is “our true set theory”), according to M, it will be provable that the set S is consistent. But there is a serious problems: there just may be no such object as S in the domain of M and the stipulation may fail. (E.g., in non-standard analysis, the set of finite naturals is never an internal set.)
(One may think a second option is possible: There is such an object as S in M’s universe, but it can’t be referred to in M, in the sense that there is no formula ϕ(x) such that ϕ is satisfied by S and only by S. This option is not actually possible, however, in this case.)
Or so it looks to me. But all this is immensely confusing to me.
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