Suppose that objectively, hell lasts forever. But while the first objective year of hell is experienced subjectively as a year long, the second objective year "goes by faster" as we say, and only takes half a year, the the third objective year "goes by even faster" and only takes a quarter of a year, and so on. Thus, while the damned will always exist and always be suffering, they will only experience two years' worth of suffering over that objectively eternal suffering.
Now the difficult question is whether this is an orthodox view of hell. When Jesus talks about the suffering being everlasting, is he talking of subjective or objective time? We certainly wouldn't find the analogous view of heaven satisfactory. But heaven and hell aren't exact parallels: in heaven one is with God, and the absence of God is not much of a parallel to God.
Now, without affirming the model, it can still be of some use in apologetics. For suppose a non-Christian objects that nobody deserves an everlasting hell. One answer is Anselm's: an infinite crime deserves infinite punishment and some crimes against an infinite being are infinite. But given the above model or the alternate model here, one can say that an everlasting hell could involve only a finite amount of suffering. So one can say: if someone is damned, then either she committed a crime that deserves infinite punishment or her total suffering is finite. Since both options are compatible with everlasting hell, in neither case does the objection to an everlasting hell go through. And one can give this disjunctive answer while strongly inclined to think that the Anselmian infinite crime model of hell is superior, as long as the alternate model is not a heresy (if it is, I will of course withdraw it).