By a finite alphabet encoding of a set X, such as the real numbers, I mean a one-to-one function ψ from X to countably infinite sequences s0s1... taken from some finite alphabet. For instance, standard decimal encoding, with a decision whether to have infinite sequences of trailing nines or not, is a finite alphabet encoding of the reals, with the alphabet consisting of ten digits, a decimal point and a sign. Write ψk(x) for the kth symbol in the encoding ψ(x) of x.
A function f from Rn to R is finitistic with respect to a finite alphabet encoding ψ provided that there is a function h from the natural numbers to the natural numbers such that the value of ψk(f(x1,...,xn)) depends only on the first h(k) symbols in each of ψ(x1), ..., ψ(xn).
This concept is related to concepts in “real computation”, but I am not requiring that the finite dependences be all implemented by the same Turing machine.
Theorem: Let X be any infinite divisible commutative group. Then addition on X is not finitistic with respect to any finite alphabet encoding.
A divisible group X is one where for every x ∈ X there is a y such that ny = x. The real numbers under addition are divisible. So are the rationals. So is the set of all rotations in the plane.
This has a somewhat unhappy consequence for Information Processing Finitism. If reality encodes real numbers in a discrete way consistent with IPF, we should not expect each real number to have a uniquely specified encoding.
Proof of Theorem: Suppose addition is finitistic with respect to ψ. Let F be the algebra on X generated by the sets of the form {x : ψk(x) = α}. If addition is finitistic, then for any A ∈ F, there is a finite sequence of pairs (A1,B1), ..., (AN,BN) of sets in F such that
- {(x,y) : x + y ∈ A} = ⋃i(Ai×Bi).
Therefore:
- x + y ∈ A if and only if x ∈ ⋃{Ai : y ∈ Bi}.
Thus:
- − y + A = ∪ {Ai : y ∈ Bi}.
Now as y varies over the members of X, there are at most 2N different sets generated by the right hand side. Thus, − y + A can take on only finitely many values. Hence, A has only finitely many translates.
But this is impossible. Let Z be the set of x such that x + A = A. This is an additive subgroup of X. Note that x + Z = y + Z iff x − y ∈ Z iff (x−y) + A = A iff x + A = y + A. Thus, if there are only finitely many x + A, there are finitely many x + Z. Hence X/Z is a finite group. Let n be its order. Then n[x] = 0 for every coset [x] = x + Z in R/Z. For any x ∈ X choose y such that ny = x. Then n[y] = 0, and so [x] = 0, thus Z = X. It follows that A is invariant under every translation, so it must be either ⌀ or X. Hence |F| ≤ 2, which is absurd since F is infinite as X is infinite and ψ is one-to-one.
(I got the main idea for this proof from the answer here.)
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