Thursday, May 22, 2014
Kindle version of One Body discounted to $26
A (paradoxical?) argument that intentional reproduction is wrong
Consider:
- We cannot permissibly intend to produce a person for reasons that do not include the specific person's own good.
- We cannot intend to produce a person for reasons that include the specific person's own good.
- We cannot permissibly intend to produce a person without reasons.
- Necessarily, if we intend to produce a person, we do so for no reason, or for reasons that include the person's own good, or for reasons that do not include the person's own good.
- We cannot permissibly intend to produce a person. (1-4)
Now on its face, premise (2) is false. Surely people do procreate for the child's own good. But I don't think so. They may be acting for the good of whatever child results from the reproduction, but there is no specific child for whose good they are acting. And when they act for the good of whatever child results, the specific child's good ends up being a constitutive means to the good they are seeking, so they do not escape from the Kantian criticism. The good of a person is an incommunicable good: it is that specific person's good. But the existence and identity of the child depends on the couple's decision in a way that the couple is unable to figure out beforehand. Thus the couple cannot be deciding in light of the identity of the child, and hence cannot be acting for the good of that specific person.
Note that God does not suffer from the cognitive limitations that give rise to (2): he can know our identity before he decides to create us, and can decide to create us for our own good.
Now, when a couple engages in the marital act, they have a reason to engage in that act apart from reproduction: the act is good in itself, being an embodiment of marital union. Thus they can act so as to unite, and accept the child as a gift from God that goes beyond their intention. Note that even given my argument they can permissibly rationally consider the reproduction in their decision whether to make love, for instance as a defeater to various defeaters (being tired, etc.) to the marital reasons for lovemaking. On the other hand, in non-coital methods of reproduction like IVF the couple is specifically intending reproduction, and that is wrong if the argument succeeds.
I am not myself entirely convinced of (1), because I am not entirely convinced of the Kantian autonomy framework. We aren't ends in ourselves: we exist as constitutive glorifications of God. Thus it does not seem contrary to the dignity of a person to be produced for the greater glory of God. Kantianism is what you get when you remove God from the story. If that's right, then we get the surprising result that only theists can permissibly intend to produce a child. Atheists, to be consistent, will need to have the Kantian attitude, and while they can permissibly reproduce, they cannot do so with the intention of reproducing, if everything else in the argument works.
Wednesday, May 21, 2014
A metaphysical argument for a version of the Axiom of Choice
I will argue for the Axiom of Choice for sets of real numbers (ACR). ACR states that:
- Given a set U of non-empty sets of real numbers, there is a function f on U such that f(A)∈A for every A∈S.
- There is a physically possible causally isolated situation in which there is a physical process R generating exactly one maximal semi-infinite (with beginning and no end) sequence of independent fair indeterministic coin tosses, and such that every combination of coin toss results can occur.
- For any possible physical process, and any cardinality K, it is possible that there are K causally isolated situations in each of which an instance of that process runs.
- If there is a set S of causally isolated situations, a set E of event types, and a function g from S to T such that for each s∈S an event of type g(s) is causally possible in s, then it is metaphysically possible that for each s∈S, an event of type g(s) occurs in s.
- If U is a set of non-empty sets of real numbers and possibly possibly there is a function f on U such that f(A)∈A for every A∈U, then there is a function f on U such that f(A)∈A for every A∈U.
Premise (1) is highly intuitive. Premise (2) is plausible, though finitists will deny it.
Premise (3) has the dubious form of saying that if each of some set of propositions—in this case, the propositions that g(s) as s ranges over S—is possible, then these propositions can all be true at once. Of course, this is false in general. But (3) limits this claim by making the propositions not just be metaphysically possible, but causally possible, and by saying that the propositions report what happens in different causally isolated situations. And individually causally possible events in different causally isolated situations should be compossible.
Finally, premise (4) says that the truth of mathematical propositions about the existence of numerically valued functions on sets of sets of real numbers does not vary across possible worlds, or even possibly possible worlds (given S4, the two would be be the same).
Now on to the argument. Let r be a function from semi-infinite sequences of heads-tails to real numbers, such that every real number is in the range of r. (For instance, one can let the coin toss sequence define a binary fraction between 0 and 1, and then apply some function to scale that up to all of (−∞,∞).) Let K be the cardinality of our set U of non-empty sets of real numbers. By (2) there is a possible world w1 containing a set S of K causally isolated instances of our random toss process R. Suppose now that w1 is actual. Let h be a bijection from S to the set U in ACR. Let g(s) be the event type of the random toss process in generating a sequence x of tosses such that r(x)∈h(s). Then g(s) is a causally possible event type, since every heads-tails sequence can occur by means of R and every real number can be generated by applying r to some heads-tails sequence. By (3), there is a possible world w2 at which all of this happens and each event g(s) occurs. But at w2, we can then let f(A) for A∈U be equal to r(x) where x is the result of R in the unique situation s such that h(s)=A. Then f(A)∈A since g(s) occurs.
We have thus shown that at w2, there is a choice function f. Since w2 is possible at w1, and w1 is actually possible, by (4) there is a choice function f, and the argument is complete.
I've given a version of this argument before, but this version identifies the assumptions more clearly, especially premise (3) about the conglomeration of causal possibilities across isolated scenarios.
Tuesday, May 20, 2014
The completed infinite
It is very hard to deny that it is logically possible that every rabbit has at least one offspring and there are no loops (no rabbit is its own ancestor). But in that situation, there will be infinitely many rabbits.
"Not so fast!" say the defenders of the distinction between the potential and the completed infinite. This is a case of a potential but not a completed, or actual, infinite. But why? On the scenario in question, there are infinitely many humans. A standard answer is to embrace a theory of time, like growing block or presentism, on which there are no future entities, and then to say something like this about the scenario:
- Infinitelymany rabbits will come into existence, but there are only finitely many rabbits and at any given future time there will only be finitely many then.
My proposal is that we should see the denial of a completed infinite differently. Rather than seeing it ontologically as saying that there are not infinitely many of anything, we should see it causally. A student has completed a class provided that the class is available for her to build on, either in her future thinking and work or as a prerequisite for other classes. Likewise, a process is completed provided that its product is available for other processes to build on.
A completed infinity, I propose, is the sort of infinity that can be causally built upon. The rabbits in my initial scenario cannot be built upon: they aren't all causally available to anyone. In that initial scenario, there is a plausible explanation about this in terms of time: there is no time at which there are infinitely many rabbits, so there is no time at which you can build on all of them.
But my causal finitism suggests that the same is true on my modified scenario where the rabbits breed faster and faster. Maybe that scenario can produce an infinite number of rabbits in a finite amount of time. But nonetheless, only finitely many of the rabbits will irreducibly work together causally. (I wonder whether irreducibility rules out overdetermination. Worth thinking about...) Let's say you cast a glance at that infinity of rabbits. You will only see finitely many at a time—your field of view is only finitely large and finitely sharp. Only finitely many of them will eat up your garden. And so on.
If we see a "completed infinity" as a causal notion, then we have no worries about Platonist mathematics. For mathematical entities are typically taken to be causally inert, and even if for some epistemological reason we do not take them so, we could still think that only finitely many are involved in any one causal interaction.
Monday, May 19, 2014
The temporal insurpassability of heaven
Heavenly bliss lasts infinitely long. (Some theologians think of heaven as timeless, but that fits poorly with the doctrine of the resurrection of the body.) But wouldn't it be better to have a second heavenly life, after the first infinite one? And then instead of the usual order type ω for one's future days (1st future day, 2nd future day, 3rd future day, ...) one would have order type ω·2 (1st day, 2nd day, 3rd day, ..., infinitieth day + ωth day, (ω+1)st day, (ω+2)nd day, ...). And why stop there? Why not future days of order type ω·3? Or ω2? Or ωω? No temporal infinity seems insurpassable, so it seems that there could always be a longer afterlife.
Not so if my causal finitist thesis is true. For while the causal finitist thesis does not by itself deny the possibility of a longer infinite afterlife, it denies the possibility that any event could essentially depend on an earlier infinity of events. In particular, it means that if one had an infinite afterlife, and then continued to exist after that, it would be impossible to integrate that infinite afterlife in memory. But it is an important feature of the sort of creatures that we are that we integrate our past in our memory. Thus, given causal finitism, an afterlife whose events went beyond order type ω would be a disintegrated afterlife, unfitting for the sorts of beings we are.
This solves the third of the theological questions here.
By the same token, causal finitism makes implausible the following variant on universalism: "While hell is infinitely long, everyone who goes to hell is eventually saved (after that infinite time)." For presumably the salvation on that variant would be a result of a purification process in the infinitely long sojourn in hell, thereby being very likely to violate causal finitism.
Thursday, May 15, 2014
Popular devotions
When the devotion is centered on a saint, that deepens the community aspect by extending it beyond death.
From this point of view, I think I can now understand the ways in which we pay respect to Mary under many appellations like "Our Lady of Czestochowa", "Our Lady of Mount Carmel" and "Our Lady of Perpetual Help." For the different appellations connect one with the different overlapping communities (ethnic, monastic, etc.) that are inspired by that aspect of our Lady's character and life. And part of the
richness of the life of a large vibrant community like the Church (or a nation, for that matter) are the overlapping smaller synchronic and diachronic communities found within it. Just as it is good to have particular friends, it is good to identify with multiple particular communities. All if this fulfills us as the social animals we are.Thus, those Christians, especially Catholics, who focus on the horizontal aspects of the Christian life, who take the notion of community as central, should love popular devotions. (One thinks here of Fr. Andrew Greeley as an example of this love.)
Tuesday, May 13, 2014
More fun with infinite fair lotteries
Imagine an infinite sequence of games such that you are nearly certain to win each one, but you're also certain to lose all but finitely many of them. This seems really absurd. But given an infinite fair lottery, it can be easily arranged. Suppose a secret natural number N is chosen in our infinite fair lottery. Let Gn be the following game, for n a natural number:
- You win if N>n and you lose otherwise.
Imagine placing bets on this game. If it costs a penny to play and the payoff is a dollar, you'll think it's a great deal: after all, you're nearly certain you will win. But if you play all the games, you will make only finitely many dollars, and lose infinitely many pennies.
Conclusion? I suppose the best one is that infinite fair lotteries are impossible.
Monday, May 12, 2014
Simplicity and divine decisions
One of the most difficult problems for divine simplicity are how to square it with creation and divine knowledge of free actions. On its face, there are at least four distinct states of God:
- God's essential nature
- God's contingent decisions
- God's knowledge of his contingent decisions
- God's knowledge of creatures' free responses to his contingent decisions.
My own preferred sketch of a solution to these problems is here. The solution proceeds by making the contingent aspects of (2)-(4) be extrinsic to God.
For those Christians who are unimpressed by the strength of the traditional commitments (in the pre-Reformation tradition, but also in people like Calvin and Turretin) to divine simplicity, and the arguments for divine simplicity, the natural solution will appear to be to deny divine simplicity, and then not worry about the problem.
They should still worry about the problem. For if one denies divine simplicity and holds that God has at least the two distinct constituents: his essential nature, N, and his contingent decisions, D, then one has to say something about the relationship between these two. Clearly, D is in some way explained by N: God acts as he does in part because of his essentially perfectly good character. The explanation is not a grounding-type explanation—to make it be a grounding-type explanation would be to hold on to a version of a divine simplicity explanation. In creatures, the corresponding explanation of decisions would be causal: the character causes (deterministically or not) the decision. So it seems that we have something very much like a causal relationship between N and D. And this in turn makes D be very much like a creature, indeed perhaps literally a creature. Since D is a constituent of God, it follows that a constituent of God is very much like a creature, perhaps literally a creature. But this surely contradicts transcendence!
Now perhaps one can insist that the relationship between N and D while being akin to causation is sufficiently different from it that D is sufficiently different from a creature that we have no violation of transcendence. Maybe, but I am still worried.
So if I am right, even if one denies divine simplicity, a version of the problem remains. And so the problem may not be a problem specifically for divine simplicity.
Friday, May 9, 2014
The most fundamental and what matters most
What matters most are things like people, love, understanding, courage, friendship, beauty, etc. According to many contemporary metaphysicians, what is most fundamental are things like sets, points, photons, charge, spin, the electromagnetic field, etc. It's almost as if the metaphysicians took the fact that something matters to be evidence that it isn't fundamental.
But here is a plausible hypothesis or at least heuristic:
- Fundamental predicates apply primarily to fundamental entities, and derivatively to other entities.
Thus, either persons will be themselves fundamental, and primary bearers of value, or else persons will be partly constituted by something fundamental which is a primary bearer of value. The best candidate for this valuable constituent is the soul. Hence, either persons are fundamental or they have souls that are fundamental.
In fact, I would conjecture that we should turn on its head the correlation between fundamentality and not mattering that we find in much contemporary metaphysics. The more something matters, the more reason we have to think it is fundamental, I suspect. This may lead to a metaphysics on which there are fundamental facts about persons, their psychology and their biology, a realist metaphysics with a human face.
Thursday, May 8, 2014
No event can irreducibly depend on infinitely many things
I am now thinking the following principle is likely to be true:
- (NoInfDep) No event can irreducibly depend on infinitely many things.
Why think NoInfDep is true? The general line of argument is this. There are a number of paradoxes that NoInfDep rules out. Now in the case of each paradox, there is a narrower modal principle that could rule out the paradox, but the narrower principle is ad hoc in a way that NoInfDep isn't, and so our best explanation as to why the paradoxes are ruled out is (1).
Here are the paradoxes I currently have in mind:
- Thomson's Lamp
- Grim Reapers
- Coin sequence guessing
- Infinite fair lotteries resulting from infinitely many fair coin tosses (see the discussion in one of my comments of the paradoxicality)
- Satan's Apple and some other decision-theoretic paradoxes (e.g., the game where we have dollar bills numbered 1,2,3,... and you start with dollar bill #1, and in each round you give me your lowest numbered bill, and I give you two bills with higher numbers; at the end you have nothing)
- Realizations of the Banach-Tarski Paradox and maybe even things relating to nonmeasurable sets.
I want to say something about the Banach-Tarski case. The paradox there is purely mathematical. But to realize this paradox in real life--to actually decompose a solid ball (if there were such a thing) into two of equal size--you would need to make something like a choice function, which would require infinitely many data points, and those would require, I suspect, irreducibly infinitely many events to generate.
And now we have the Kalaam argument.
Tuesday, May 6, 2014
Infinite regress explanations
Consider Thomson's toggle lamp—each time the button is pressed, the lamp toggles between on and off—but suppose it existed from eternity and every January 1 the switch has been pressed once, and only then. Why is the lamp on now? Consider the regress explanation: It's on in 2014 because it was off in 2013 and toggled on January 1, 2014. And it was off in 2013 because it was on in 2012 and toggled on January 1, 2013. And so on.
Hume will say that this is a complete explanation. But surely not. Surely the whole story does not explain why the lamp is on in even numbered years and off in odd numbered years.
Notice an interesting thing. The following are perfectly fine explanations:
- The lamp is on in 2014 because it was off in 2013 and toggled at the beginning of 2014.
- The lamp is on in 2014 because it was on in 2012 and toggled at the beginnings of 2013 and 2014.
- The lamp is on in 2014 because it was off in 2011 and toggled at the beginnings of 2012, 2013 and 2014.
- The lamp was toggled at the beginnings of ..., 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013 and 2014.
- The limit of L(2n) is 1 as n→−∞ and the limit of L(2n+1) is 0 as n→−∞ (both limits over the integers only).
- The lamp is on in 2014 because of (4) and (5).
So infinite regresses aren't enough for ultimate explanations, pace Hume.
Monday, May 5, 2014
Induction and eccentricity
There is reason to be a conventional person. For the more conventional one is, the more accurate will be people's inductive arguments about one's behavior and character. Being understood by others is a good thing. It is good not only because it is good that people possess the truth, but it is good for one in that relationships with one are more likely to be based on truth.
Of course, there may be defeaters.
Thursday, May 1, 2014
Truth by convention
I stipulate that "It xyzzies" is true. Clearly I have failed to make "It xyzzies" meaningful. My stipulation is compatible with "It xyzzies" meaning that 2+2=4, but also with its meaning that everything is round or non-round. So stipulating a sentence to be true isn't going to be sufficient to introduce the sentence into our language. But if I say anything more about the meaning of the sentence, I risk that no true sentence might fit what I say, and we lose the point of truth by convention. Nor does it at all help to stipulate a family of sentences at once, e.g., stipulating that whenever S and T are true, so is "S*T", and when "S*T" is true, S is true, and when "S*T" is true, T is true. That still fails to introduce a connective "*", unless we say more about the meaning. The stipulation I gave is compatible with too many things. For instance, "S*T" could mean "God believes S and God believes T", or it could mean "(S or S) and (T and T)". And if I say more about which one I mean, I risk the stipulating being unsuccessful. So that's that for truth by convention. It's fun to drive nails in the coffins of dead theories.
Functional characterizations of pain
Functionalists are committed to functional characterizations of pain. The difficulty with a functional characterization is that if it is too specific, it will be very plausible that there could be—or even are!—beings where a pain plays a somewhat different functional role, and that if it is broad, then some things that aren't pain will count as pain. In other words, while functionalism was introduced to help with the multiple-realizability problem of simple type-type identity theories, multiple-realizability comes back, though in milder form.
Think first of the great variety of functions played by pains in our own mental lives. First, it is not very plausible that there would be a single function that is played by both physical and emotional pain. When I feel pain after I touch a hot stove, that motivates avoidance. But when I am in pain that someone I cared about died, that doesn't motivate anything like avoidance. Of course, everything is similar to everything else in some way, so there will be a level of functional description which will capture both kinds of pain, but it is very likely that the description will capture lots of things other than pains as well.
Now maybe there isn't too much cost to saying that physical and emotional pain are different kinds of things that happen to have the same word applied to them, much as we call both nephrite and jadeite "jade". (If one has a hedonist theory of wellbeing, there will be a cost, as now there will be two sources of illbeing. But one shouldn't have a hedonist theory.)
The same issue, though, I think will come up between different kinds of emotional pains. It is very dubious whether there is a sufficiently robust characterization of the function of emotional pain that captures grief, guilt, terror, disappointment and boredom, but doesn't also capture things that aren't pains at all. The roles of these emotional pains are very different. But perhaps there is something to be said for the thought that these negative emotions are not of a piece, that they too shouldn't be classed together. However, at this point the theory is becoming more costly.
Let's now stick to physical pain. Plausibly, in some animals physical pain leads directly to avoidance behavior. But in humans it does not. (The instinctive jerking back from a hot stove occurs before you have pain.) So the functional role is very different. And it is dubious whether one can give a characterization of this functional role that goes beyond something very vague like "motivation to avoidance", which will include way too many things that aren't pains at all, such as the causes of aversive behavior in bacteria.
One might, of course, try to give a functional characterization that is closer to the actual functioning of our brains. Thus, one might describe the kinds of functional interconnections that happen in our brains. And it might be that sufficeintly similar interconnections happen in the brains of other vertebrates. But if the description is too close to neural structures, then we get the conclusion that aliens whose neural analogues cause very similar adaptive behavior as our brains do not have pain.

