Christians and Jews should not be Aristotelian virtue ethicists

If virtue ethics is correct:

1. An choice is wrong if and only if a person with the relevant virtues and in these circumstances wouldn’t have made that choice. (Premise)

If Aristotelian virtue ethics is correct:

2. An adult lacking a virtue is defective. (Premise)

But:

3. Humans became defective because of the choice of Adam and Eve to eat the forbidden fruit. (Premise)

And it seems that:

4. Adam and Eve were adult humans when they chose to eat the forbidden fruit. (Premise)

Thus it seems:

5. When Adam and Eve chose to eat the forbidden fruit, they were not lacking relevant virtues. (By 2–4)

6. Thus, persons (namely Adam and Eve!) with the relevant virtues and in their circumstances did choose to eat the forbidden fruit. (By 5)

7. Thus, their choice to eat the forbidden fruit wasn’t wrong. (1 and 6)

8. But their choice was wrong. (Premise)

9. Contradiction!

Here is one thing the classic virtue ethicist can question about this argument: the derivation of (5) depends on how we read premise (1). We could read (1) as:

10. A choice of A is wrong if and only if a person who had the relevant virtues explanatorily prior to having chosen A and was in these circumstances would not have chosen A

or as:

11. A choice of A is wrong if and only if a person who had the relevant virtues while having chosen A and was in these circumstances would not have chosen A.

If we opt for (10), the derivation of (5) works, and the argument stands. But if we opt for (11) then we can say that as soon as Adam and Eve chose to eat the fruit, they no longer counted as virtuous.

Could the virtue ethicist thus opt for (11) in place of (10)? I don’t think so. It seems central to virtue ethics that the right choices are ones that result from virtue. And that is what (10) captures. To a great extent (11) would trivialize virtue ethics, in that obviously in doing a bad thing one isn’t virtuous.