The randomness objection to libertarian free will says that undetermined choices could only be random rather than reason-governed.
I want to consider a bit of a reply to this. Suppose that you are choosing between A and B. You have a reason R for A and a reason S for B, and you freely end up choosing A. I think the following will be true, and I think the libertarian can say that they are true as well:
- If the reason R for A were stronger, you'd still have chosen A.
- If the reason S for B were weaker, you'd still have chosen A.
- If the reason R for A were noticeably weaker, you might not have chosen A.
- If the reason S for B were noticeably stronger, you might not have chosen B.
So, I think that if I am right that the libertarian can reasonably affirm (1)-(4), then the randomness objection fails. Of the four, I don't think there is any difficulty with (3) and (4): even if there were pure randomness, we would expect (3) and (4) to be true. So the question is: Can the libertarian affirm (1) and (2)? And I think (1) and (2) are in the same boat, so really the question is whether the libertarian can affirm (1)?
And I say: Why not? At the same time, I know that when I've talked with fellow libertarians about this, they've been pretty sceptical about counterfactuals like (1). Their main reason for scepticism was van Inwagen's re-run argument: In indeterministic free choice situations, if you repeated the same circumstances, you'd get different results. And you'd expect to get different results in repeat runs even if you somewhat raised the strength of the reasons for A.
I agree with the re-run intuition here, but I don't see it as incompatible with (1). The re-run intuition is about what we would get at a later time, albeit in a situation that is qualitatively the same. But (1) is about what would have happened at the time you made the original choice, albeit in a situation that was tweaked to favor A more.