Using general purpose LLMs to help with set theory questions

Are general purpose LLMs useful to figuring things out in set theory? Here is a story about two experiences I recently had. Don’t worry about the mathematical details.

Last week I wanted to know whether one can prove a certain strengthened version of Cantor’s Theorem without using the Axiom of Choice. I asked Gemini. The results were striking. It looked like a proof, but at crucial stages degenerated into weirdness. It started the proof as a reductio, and then correctly proved a bunch of things, and then claimed that this leads to a contradiction. It then said a bunch of stuff that didn’t yield a contradiction, and then said the proof was complete. Then it said a bunch more stuff that sounded like it was kind of seeing that there was no contradiction.

The “proof” also had a step that needed more explanation and it offered to give an explanation. When I accepted its offer it said something that sounded right, but it implicitly used the Axiom of Choice, which I expressly told it in the initial problem it wasn’t supposed to. When I called it on this, it admitted it, but defended itself by saying it was using a widely-accepted weaker version of Choice (true, but irrelevant).

ChatGPT screwed up in a different way. Both LLMs produced something that at the local level looked like a proof, but wasn’t. I ended up asking MathOverflow and getting a correct answer.

Today, I was thinking about Martin’s Axiom which is something that I am very unfamiliar with. Along the way, I wanted to know if:

1. There is an upper bound on the cardinality of a compact Hausdorff topological space that satisfies the countable chain condition (ccc).

Don’t worry about what the terms mean. Gemini told me this was a “classic” question and the answer was positive. It said that the answer depended on a “deep” result of Shapirovskii from 1974 that implied that:

2. Every compact Hausdorff topological space satisfying the ccc is separable.

A warning bell that I failed to heed sufficiently was that Gemini’s exposition of Shapirovskii included the phrase “the cc(X) = cc(X) implies d(X) = cc(X)”, which is not only ungrammatical (“the”?!) but has a trivial antecedent.

I had trouble finding an etext of the Shapirovskii paper (which from the title is on a relevant topic), so I asked ChatGPT whether (2) is true. Its short answer was: “Not provable in ZFC.” It then said that the existence of a counterexample is independent of the ZFC axioms. Well, I Googled a bit more, and found that the falsity of (2) follows from the ZFC axioms given the highest-ranked answer here as combined with the (very basic) Tychonoff theorem (I am not just relying on authority here: I can see that the example in the answer works). Thus, the “Not provable” claim was just false. I suspect that ChatGPT got its wrong answer by reading too much into a low-ranked answer on the same page (the low ranked answer gave a counterexample that is independent of the ZFC axioms, but did not claim that all counterexamples are so independent).

A tiny bit of thought about the counterexample to (2) made it clear to me that the answer to (1) was negative.

I then asked Gemini in a new session directly about (2). It gave essentially the same incorrect answer as ChatGPT, but with a bit more detail. Amusingly, this contradicts what Gemini said to my initial question.

Finally, just as I was writing this up, I asked ChatGPT directly about (1). It correctly stated that the answer to (1) is negative. However, parts of its argument were incorrect—it gave an inequality (which I haven’t checked the correctness of) but then its argument relied on the opposite inequality.

So, here’s the upshot. On my first set theoretic question, the incorrect answers of both LLMs did not help me in the least. On my second question, Gemini was wrong, but it did point me to a connection between (1) and (2) (which I should have seen myself), and further investigation led me to negative answers to both (1) and (2). Both Gemini and ChatGPT got (2) wrong. ChatGPT got the answer to (1) right (which it had a 50% chance of, I suppose) but got the argument wrong.

Nonetheless, on my second question Gemini did actually help me, by pointing me to a connection that along with MathOverflow pointed me to the right answer. If you know what you’re doing, you can get something useful out of these tools. But it’s dangerous: you need to be able to extract kernels from truth from a mix of truth and falsity. You can’t trust anything set theoretic the LLM gives, not even if it gives a source.

Plural quantification and the continuum hypothesis

Some people, including myself, are concerned that plural quantification may be quantification over sets in logical clothing rather than a purely logical tool or a free lunch. Here is a somewhat involved argument in this direction. The argument has analogues for mereological universalism and second-order quantification (and is indeed a variant of known arguments in the last context).

The Continuum Hypothesis (CH) in set theory says that there is no set whose cardinality is greater than that of the integers and less than that of the real numbers. In fact, due to the work of Goedel and Cohen, we know that CH is independent of the axioms of Zermelo-Fraenkel-Choice (ZFC) set theory assuming ZFC is consistent, and indeed ZFC is consistent with a broad variety of answers to the question of how many cardinalities there are between the integers and the reals (any finite number is a possible answer, but there can even be infinitely many). While many of the other axioms of set theory sound like they might be just a matter of the logic of collections, neither CH nor its denial seems like that. Indeed, these observations may push one to think that there many different universes of sets, some with CH and others with an alternative to CH, rather than a single privileged concept of “true sets”.

Today I want to show that plural quantification, together with some modal assumptions, allow one to state a version of CH. I think this pushes one to think analogous things about plural quantification as about sets: plural quantification is not just a matter of logic (vague as this statement might be) and there may even be a plurality of plural quantifications.

This is well-known given a pairing function. But I won’t assume a pairing function, and instead I will do a bunch of hard work.

The same approach will give us a version of CH in Monadic Second Order logic and in a mereology with arbitrary fusions.

Let’s go!

Say that a possible world w is admissible provided that:

1. w is a multiverse of universes

2. for any two universes u and v and item a in u, there is a unique item b in v with the same mass as a

3. the items in each universe are well-ordered by mass

4. for each item in each universe there is an item in the same universe with bigger mass

5. for each item c in a universe u if a is not of the least mass in u, a has an immediate predecessor with respect to mass in u.

The point of (3)–(5) is to ensure that each universe has a least-mass item and that there are only countably many items. If we assumed that masses are real numbers, we would just need (3) and (4).

Say that pluralities of items xx in a universe u and yy in a universe v of an admissible world correspond provided that for all natural numbers i, if a is in u and b is in v and a and b have equal mass, then a is among xx if and only if b is among yy. Two individual items correspond provided that they have equal mass.

Say that an admissible possible world w is big provided that:

6. at w: there is a plurality xx of items such that (a) for any universe u and any plurality yy of items in u, there is a universe v such that the subplurality of items from xx that are in v corresponds to yy and (b) there are no distinct universes u and v each with an item in common with xx such that the subpluralities of xx consisting of items in u and v, respectively, correspond to each other.

The bigness condition ensures that we have at least continuum-many universes.

Say that the head of a universe u is the item u in the universe that has least mass. Say that two items are neighbors provided that they are in the same universe. We can identify universes with their heads.

Say that a plurality hh of heads of universes is countable provided that:

• There is a plurality xx of items such that each of the hh has exactly one neighbor among the xx and no two items of xx correspond.

The plurality xx defines a mapping of each head in hh to one of its neighbors, and the above condition ensures each distinct pair of heads is mapped to non-corresponding neighbors, and that ensures there are countably many hh.

Say that a plurality hh of heads of universes is continuum-sized provided that:

• There is a plurality xx of items such that each head z among the hh has a neighbor among the xx, and for any universe u and any plurality yy of the items of u, there is a unique head z among the hh such that the plurality of its neighbors corresponds to z.

The plurality xx basically defines a bijection between hh and the subpluralities of any fixed universe.

Given pluralities gg and hh of heads of universes, say pluralities xx and yy of items define a mapping from gg to hh provided that:

• There are pluralities xx and yy of items such that for each item a from gg, if uu is the plurality of a’s neighbors among the xx, then there is a unique item b among the hh such that the plurality vv of b’s neighbors among the yy corresponds to uu.

If a and b are as above, we say that b is the value of a under the mapping defined by xx and yy. Here’s how this works: xx defines a map of heads in gg to pluralities of their respective neighbors and yy defines a map of some of the heads in hh to pluralities of their respective neighbors, and then the correspondence relation can be used to match up heads in gg with heads in hh.

We now say that the mapping defined by xx and yy is injective provided that distinct items in gg never have the same value under the mapping. (This is only going to be possible if gg is continuum-sized.)

If there are xx and yy that define an injective mapping from gg to hh, then we say that |gg| ≤ |hh|. If we have |gg| ≤ |hh| but not |hh| ≤ |gg|, we say that |gg| < |hh|.

The rest is easy. The Continuum Hypothesis for the heads in big admissible w says that there aren’t pluralities of heads gg and hh such that gg is not countable, hh is continuum-sized, and |gg| < |hh|.

We can also get analogues of the finite alternatives to the Continuum Hypothesis. For instance, an analogue to 2^ℵ₀ = ℵ₃ says that there are pluralities bb, cc and dd of heads such that bb is not countable, dd is continuum sized and |bb| < |cc| < |dd|, but there are not pluralities aa, bb, cc and dd with aa not countable, dd continuum-sized and |aa| < |bb| < |cc| < |dd.

Maybe we can create spacetime

Suppose a substantivalist view of spacetime on which points of spacetime really exist.

Suppose I had taken a different path to my office today. Then the curvature of spacetime would have been slightly different according to General Relativity.

Question: Would spacetime have had the same points, but with different metric relations, or would spacetime have had different points with different metric relations?

If we go for the same points option, then we have to say that the distance between two points is not an essential property of the two points. Moreover it then turns out that spacetime has degrees of freedom that are completely unaccounted for in General Relativity, degrees of freedom that specify ``where’’ (with respect to the metric) our world’s points of spacetime would be in counterfactual situations. This makes for a much more complicated theory.

If we go for the different points option, then we have the cool capability of creating points of spacetime by waving our arms. While this is a little counterintuitive, it seems to me to be the best answer. Perhaps the best story here is that points of spacetime are individuated by the limiting metric properties of the patches of spacetime near them and by their causal history.

Time without anything changing

Consider this valid argument:

1. Something that exists only for an instant cannot undergo real change.

2. Something timeless cannot undergo real change.

3. There can be no change without something undergoing real change.

4. There is a possible world where there is time but all entities are either timeless or momentary.

5. So it is possible to have time without change.

Premises 1 and 2 are obvious.

The thought behind premise 3 is that there are two kinds of change: real change and Cambridge change. Cambridge change is when something changes in virtue of something else changing—say, a parent gets less good at chess than a child simply because the child gets really good at it. But on pain of a clearly vicious regress, Cambridge change presupposes real change.

The world I have in mind for (4) is one where a timeless God creates a succession of temporal beings, each of which exists only for an instant.

(I initially wanted to formulate the argument in terms of intrinsic rather than real change. But that would need a premise that says that there can be no change without something undergoing intrinsic change. But imagine a world with no forces where the only temporal entities are two particles eternally moving away from each other at constant velocity. They change in their distance, but they do not change intrinsically. This is not Cambridge change, for Cambridge change requires something else to have real change, and there is no other candidate for change in this world. Thus it seems that one can have real change that is wholly relational—the particles in this story are really changing.)

All that said, I am not convinced by the argument, because when I think about the world of instantaneous beings, it seems obvious to me that it’s a world of change. But even though it’s a world of change, it’s not a world where any thing changes. (One might dispute this, saying that the universe exists and changes. I don’t think there is such a thing as the universe.) This suggests that what is wrong with the argument is that premise (3) is false. To have change in the world is not the same as for something to change. This is more support for my thesis that factual and objectual change are different, and one cannot reduce the former to the latter.

The last thought

Entertain this thought:

1. There is a unique last thought that anyone ever thinks and it’s not true.

Or, more briefly:

2. The last thought is not true.

There are, of course, possible worlds where there is no last thought, because (temporal) thoughts go on forever, and worlds where there is a tie for last thought, and worlds where the last thought is “I screwed up” and is true. But, plausibly, there are also worlds where there is a unique last thought and it’s not true—say, a world where the last thought is “I see how to defuse the bomb now.”

In other words, (1) seems to be a perfectly fine, albeit depressing, contingent thought.

Is there a world where (1) is the last thought? You might think so. After all, it surely could be the case that someone entertains (1) and then a bomb goes off and annihilates everyone. But supposing that (1) is the last thought in w, then (1) either is or is not true in w. If it is true in w, then it is not, and if it is not true, then it is true. Now that’s a paradoxical last thought!

Over the last week, I’ve been thinking of a paradox about thoughts and worlds, inspired by an argument of Rasmussen and Bailey. I eventually came to realize that the paradox (apparently unlike their argument) seems to be just a version of the Liar Paradox, essentially the one that I gave above.

But we shouldn’t stop thinking just because we have hit upon a Liar. (You don’t want your last thought to be that you hit upon a Liar!) Let’s see what more we can say. First, the version of the Liar in (1) is the Contingent Liar: we only get paradoxicality in worlds where the last thought is (1) or something logically equivalent to (1).

Now, consider that (1) has unproblematic truth value in our world. For in our world, there is no last thought, given eternal life. And even if there were no eternal life, and there was a last thought, likely it would be something that is straightforwardly true or false, without any paradox. Now an unproblematic thought that has truth value has a proposition as a content. Let that proposition be p. Then we can see that neither p nor anything logically equivalent to it can be the content of the last thought in any world.

This is very strange. If you followed my directions, as you read this blog post, you began your reading by entertaining a thought with content p. It surely could have happened that at that exact time, t, no one else thought anything else. But since a thought with content p cannot be the last thought, it seems that some mysterious force would be compelling people to think something after t. Granted, Judaism, Christianity and Islam, there is such a mysterious force, namely God: God has promised eternal life to human beings, and this eternal life is a life that includes thinking. But we could imagine someone thinking a thought with content p at a time when no one else is thinking in a world where God has made no such promises.

So what explains the constraint that neither p nor anything logically equivalent to it can be the content of the last thought in a possible world? After all, we want to maintain some kind of a reasonable rearrangement or mosaic principle and it’s hard to think of one that would let one require that a world where a thought with content p happens at a time t when no one else is thinking, then a thought must occur later. Yet classical logic requires us to say this.

I think what we have to say is this. Take a world w₁ without any relevant divine promises or the like, where after a number of other thoughts, Alice finally thinks a thought with content p at a time when no one else is engaging in any mental activity, and then she permanently dies at t before anyone else can get to thinking anything else. Then at w₁ there will be other thoughts after Alice’s death. Now take a world w₂ that is intrinsically just like w₁ up to and including t, and then there is no thought. I think it’s hard to avoid saying that worlds like w₁ and w₂ are possible. This requires us to say that at w₂, Alice does not think a thought with content p before death, even though w₂ is intrinsically just like w₁ up to and including the time of her death.

What follows is that whether the content of Alice’s thought is p depends on what happens after her (permanent) death. In other words, we have a particularly controversial version of semantic externalism on which facts about the content of mental activity depend on the future, even in cases like p where the proposition does not depend on the identities of any objects or natural kinds other than perhaps ones (is thought a natural kind?) that have already been instantiated. Semantic externalism extends far!

The lastness in (1) and (2) functions to pick out a unique thought in some worlds without regard for its content. There are other ways of doing so:

• the most commonly thought thought

• the least favorite thought of anybody

• the one and only thought that someone accepts with credence π/4.

Each of these leads to a similar argument for a very far-reaching semantic externalism.

An improved paradox about thoughts and worlds

Yesterday, I offered a paradox about possible thoughts and pluralities of worlds. The paradox depends on a kind of recombination principle (premise (2) in the post) about the existence of thoughts, and I realized that the formulation in that post could be objected to if one has a certain combination of views including essentiality of origins and the impossibility of thinking a proposition that involves non-qualitative features (say, names or natural kinds) in a world where these features do not obtain.

So I want to try again, and use two tricks to avoid the above problem. Furthermore, after writing up an initial draft (now deleted), I realized I don’t need pluralities at all, so it’s just a paradox about thoughts and worlds.

The first trick is to restrict ourselves to (purely) qualitative thoughts. Technically, I will do this by supposing a relation Q such that:

1. The relation Q is an equivalence (i.e., reflexive, symmetric, and transitive) on worlds.

We can take this equivalence relation to be qualitative sameness or, if we don’t want to make the qualitative thought move after all, we can take Q to be identity. I don’t know if there are other useful choices.

We then say that a Q-thought is a (possible) thought θ such that for any world there aren’t two worlds w and w′ with Q(w,w′) such that θ is true at one but not the other. If Q is qualitative sameness, then this captures (up to intensional considerations) that θ is qualitative. Furthermore, we say that a Q-plurality is a plurality of worlds ww such that there aren’t two Q-equivalent worlds one of which is in ww and the other isn’t.

The second trick is a way of distinguishing a “special” thought—up to logical equivalence—relative to a world. This is a relation S(w,θ) satisfying these assumptions:

2. If S(w,θ) and S(w,θ′) for Q-thoughts θ and θ′, then the Q-thoughts are logically equivalent.

3. For any Q-thought θ and world w, there is a thought θ′ logically equivalent to θ and a world w such that S(w,θ′).

4. For any Q-thought θ and any Q-related worlds w and w′, if S(w,θ), there is a thought θ′ logically equivalent to θ such that S(w′,θ′).

Assumption (2) says that when a special thought exists at a world, it’s unique up to logical equivalence. Assumption (3) says that every thought is special at some world, up to logical equivalence. In the case where Q is identity, assumption (4) is trivial. In the case where Q is qualitative sameness, assumption (4) says that a thought’s being special is basically (i.e., up to logical equivalence) a qualitative feature.

We get different arguments depending on what specialness is. A candidate for a specialness relation needs to be qualitative. The simplest candidate would be that S(w,θ) iff at w the one and only thought that occurs is θ. But this would be problematic with respect (3), because one might worry that many thoughts are such that they can only occur in worlds where some other thoughts occur.

Here are three better candidates, the first of which I used in my previous post, with the thinkers in all of them implicitly restricted to non-divine thinkers:

1. S(w,θ) iff at w there is a time t at which θ occurs, and no thoughts occur later than t, and any other thought that occurs at t is entailed by θ

2. S(w,θ) iff at w the thought θ is the favorite thought of the greatest number of thinkers up to logical equivalence (i.e., there is a cardinality κ such that for each of κ thinkers θ is the favorite thought up to logical equivalence, and there is no other thought like that)

3. S(w,θ) iff at w the thought θ is the one and only thought that anyone thinks with credence exactly π/4.

On each of these three candidates for the specialness relation S, premises (2)–(4) are quite plausible. And it is likely that if some problem for (2)–(4) is found with a candidate specialness relation, the relation can be tweaked to avoid the relation.

Let L be a first-order language with quantifiers over worlds (Latin letters) and thoughts (Greek letters), and the above predicates Q and S, as well as a T(θ,w) predicate that says that the thought θ is true at w. We now add the following schematic assumption for any formula ϕ = ϕ(w) of L with at most the one free variable w, where we write ϕ(w′) for the formula obtained by replacing free occurrences of w in ϕ with w′:

6. Q-Thought Existence: If ∀w∀w′[Q(w,w′)→(ϕ(w)↔︎ϕ(w′))], there is a thought θ such that ∀w(T(θ,w)↔︎ϕ(w)).

Our argument will only need this for one particular ϕ (dependent on the choice of Q and S), and as a result there is a very simple way to argue for it: just think the thought that a world w such that ϕ(w) is actual. Then the thought will be actual and hence possible. (Entertaining a thought seems to be a way of thinking a thought, no?)

Fact: Premises (1)–(6) are contradictory.

Eeek!!

I am not sure what to deny. I suppose the best candidates for denial are (3) and (6), but both seem pretty plausible for at least some of the above choices of S. Or, maybe, we just need to deny the whole framework of thoughts as entities to be quantified over. Or, maybe, this is just a version of the Liar?

Proof of Fact

Let ϕ(w) say that there is a Q-thought θ such that S(w,θ) and but θ is not true at w.

Note that if this is so, and Q(w,w′), then S(w′,θ′) for some θ′ equivalent to θ by (4). Since θ is a Q-thought it is also not true at w′, and hence θ′ is not true at w′, so we have ϕ(w′).

By Q-Thought Existence (6), there is a Q-thought that is true at all and only the worlds w such that ϕ(w) and by (3) there is a Q-thought ρ logically equivalent to it and a world c such that S(c,ρ). Then ρ is also true at all and only the worlds w such that ϕ(w).

Is ρ true at c?

If yes, then ϕ(c). Hence there is a Q-thought θ such that S(c,θ) but θ is not true at w. Since S(c,ρ), we must have θ and ρ equivalent by (2), so ρ is is not true at c, a contradiction.

If not, then we do not have ϕ(c). Since we have S(c,ρ), in order for ϕ(c) to fail we must have ρ true at c, a contradiction.

Thoughts and pluralities of worlds: A paradox

These premises are plausible if the quantifiers over possible thoughts are restricted to possible non-divine thoughts and the quantifiers over people are restricted to non-divine thinkers:

1. For any plurality of worlds ww, there is a possible thought that is true in all and only the worlds in ww.

2. For any possible thought θ, there is a possible world w at which there is a time t such that

   1. someone thinks a thought equivalent to θ at t,
   2. any other thought that anyone thinks at t is entailed by θ, and
   3. nobody thinks anything after t.

In favor of (1): Take the thought that one of the worlds in ww is actual. That thought is true in all and only the worlds in ww.

In favor of (2): It’s initially plausible that there is a possible world w at which someone thinks θ and nothing else. But there are reasons to be worried about this intuition. First, we might worry that sometimes to think a thought requires that one have earlier thought some other thoughts that build up to it. Thus we don’t require that there is no other thinking than θ in w, but only that at a certain specified t—the last time at which anyone thinks anything—there is a limitation on what one thinks. Second, one might worry that by thinking a thought one also thinks its most obvious entailments. Third, Wittgensteinians may deny that there can be a world with only one thinker. Finally, we might as well allow that instead of someone thinking θ in this world, they think something equivalent. The intuitions that led us to think there is a world where the only thought is θ, once we account for these worries, lead us to (2).

Next we need some technical assumptions:

3. Plurality of Worlds Comprehension: If ϕ(w) is a formula true for at least one world w, then there is a plurality of all the worlds w such that ϕ(w).

4. There are at least two worlds.

5. If two times are such that neither is later than the other, then they are the same.

(It’s a bit tricky how to understand (5) in a relativistic context. We might suppose that times are maximal spacelike hypersurfaces, and a time counts as later than another provided that a part of that time is in the absolute future of a part of the other time. I don’t know how plausible the argument will then be. Or we might restrict our attention to worlds with linear time or with a reference frame that is in some way preferred.)

Fact: (1)–(5) are contradictory.

So what should we do? I myself am inclined to deny (3), though denying (1) is also somewhat attractive.

Proof of Fact

Write T(w,uu) for a plurality of worlds uu and a world w provided that for some possible thought θ true in all and only the worlds of uu at w there is a time t such that (a)–(c) are true.

Claim: If T(w,uu) and T(w,vv) then uu = vv.

Proof: For suppose not. Let θ₁ be true at precisely the worlds of uu and θ₂ at precisely the worlds of vv. Let t_i be such that at t conditions (a)–(c) are satisfied at w for θ = θ_i. Then, using (5), we get t₁ = t₂, since by (c) there are no thoughts after t_i and by (a) there is a thought at t_i for i = 1, 2. It follows by (b) that θ₁ entails θ₂ and conversely, so uu = vv.

It now follows from (1) and (2) that T defines a surjection from some of the worlds to pluralities of worlds, and this violates a version of Cantor’s Theorem using (3). More precisely, let C(w) say that there is a plurality uu of worlds such that T(w,uu) and w is not among the uu.

Suppose first there is no world w such that C(w). Then for every world w, if T(w,uu) then the world w is among the uu. But consider two worlds a and b by (4). Let uu, vv and zz be pluralities consisting of a, b and both a and b respectively. We must then have T(a,uu), T(b,vv) and either T(a,zz) or T(b,zz)—and in either case the Claim will be violated.

So there is a world w such that C(w). Let the uu be all the worlds w such that C(w) (this uses (3)). By the surjectivity observation, there is a world c such that T(c,uu). If c is among the uu, then we cannot have C(c) since then there would be a plurality vv of worlds such that T(c,vv) with c not among the vv, from which we would conclude that c is not among the uu by the Claim, a contradiction. But if c is not among the uu, then we have C(c), and so c is among the uu, a contradiction.

Classical mereology and causal regresses

Assume classical mereology with arbitrary fusions.

Further assume two plausible theses:

1. If each of the ys is caused by at least one of the xs and there is no overlap between any of the xs and ys, then the fusion of the ys is caused by a part of the fusion of the xs.

2. It is impossible to have non-overlapping objects A and B such that A is caused by a part of B and B is caused by a part of A.

It follows that:

3. It is impossible to have an infinite causal regress of non-overlapping items.

For suppose that A₀ is caused by A₋₁ which is caused by A₋₂ and so on. Let E be a fusion of the even-numbered items and O a fusion of the odd-numbered ones. Then by (1), a part of E causes O and a part of O causes E, contrary to (2).

This is rather like explanatory circularity arguments I have used in the past against regresses, but it uses causation and mereology instead.

Persons and temporal parts

On perdurantism, we are four-dimensional beings made of temporal parts, and our actions are fundamentally those of the temporal parts.

This is troubling. Imagine a person with a large number of brains, only one of which is active at any one time, and every millisecond a new brain gets activated. There would be something troubling about the fact that we are always interacting with a different brain person, and only interacting with the person as a whole by virtue of interacting with ever different brains. And this is pretty much what happens on perdurantism.

Maybe it’s not so bad if each brain’s data comes from the previous brain, so that by learning about the new brain we also learn about the old one. And, granted, on any view over time we interact to some degree with different parts of the person—most cells swap out, and we would be untroubled if this turned out to hold for neurons as well. But it seems to me that it is a more attractive picture of interpersonal interactions if there is a fundamental core of the person with which we interact that is numerically the same core in all the interactions, so that the changing cells are just expressions of that same core.

This is not really much of an argument, just an expression of a feeling.

Imposing the duty of gratitude

Normally if Alice did something supererogatory for Bob, Bob has gained a duty to be grateful to me. It is puzzling that we have this normative power to impose a duty on someone else. (Frank Russell’s “And then there were none” story turns on this.)

In some cases the puzzle is solved by actual or presumed consent on the part of Bob.

Here’s the hard case. Bob is in the right mind. Bob doesn’t want the superegatory deed. But his not wanting it, together with the burden to Bob of having to be grateful, is morally outweighed by the benefit to Bob, so Alice’s deed is still good and indeed supererogatory.

I think in this case, Bob indeed acquires the duty of gratitude. We might now say that imposing the burden of gratitude was indeed a reason for Alice not to do the thing—but an insufficient reason. We can also lessen the problem by noting that if being grateful is a burden to Bob, that is because Bob is lacking in virtue—perhaps Bob has an excessive love of independence. To a virtuous person, being grateful is a joy. And often we shouldn’t worry much about imposing on someone something that is only a burden if they are lacking in a relevant virtue.

Disbelief

Suppose Alice believes p. Does it follow that Alice disbelieves not-p? Or would she have to believe not-not-p to disbelieve not-p? (Granted, in both classical and intuitionistic logic, not-not-p follows from p.)

Maybe this is a merely verbal question about “disbelieves”.

Or could it be that disbelief is a primitive mental state on par with belief?

Omniscience and vagueness

Suppose there is metaphysical vagueness, say that it’s metaphysically vague whether Bob is bald. God cannot believe that Bob is bald, since then Bob is bald. God cannot believe that Bob is not bald, since then Bob is not bald. Does God simply suspend judgment?

Here is a neat solution for the classical theist. Classical theists believe in divine simplicity. Divine simplicity requires an extrinsic constitution model of divine belief or knowledge in the case of contingent things. Suppose a belief version. Then, plausibly, God’s beliefs about contingent things are partly constituted by the realities they are about. Hence, it is plausible that when a reality is vague, it is vague whether God believes in this reality.

Here is another solution. If we think of belief as taking-as-true and disbelief as taking-as-false, we should suppose a third state of taking-as-vague. Then we say that for every proposition, God has a belief, disbelief or third state, as the case might be.

Desire, preference, and utilitarianism

Desire-satisfaction utilitarianism (DSU) holds that the right thing to do is what maximizes everyone’s total desire satisfaction.

This requires a view of desire on which desire does not supervene on preferences as in decision theory.

There are two reasons. First, it is essential for DSU that there be a well-defined zero point for desire satisfaction, as according to DSU it’s good to add to the population people whose desire satisfaction is positive and bad to add people whose desire-satisfaction is negative. Preferences are always relative. Adding some fixed amount to all of a person’s utilities will not change their preferences, but can change which states have positive utility and which have negative utility, and hence can change whether the person’s on-the-whole state of desire satisfaction is positive or negative.

Second, preferences cannot be compared across agents, but desires can. Suppose there are only two states, eating brownie and eating ice cream (one can’t have both), and you and I both prefer brownie. In terms of preference comparisons, there is nothing more to be said. Given any mixed pair of options i = 1, 2 with probability p_i of brownie and 1 − p_i of ice cream, I prefer option i to option j if and only if p_i > p_j, and the same is true for you. But this does not capture the possibility that I may prefer brownie by a lot and you only by a little. Without capturing this possibility, the preference data is insufficient for utilitarian decisions (if I prefer brownie by a lot, and you by a little, and there is one brownie and one serving of ice cream, I should get the brownie and you should get the ice cream on a utilitarian calculus).

The technical point here is that preferences are affine-invariant, but desires are not.

But now it is preferences that are captured behavioristically—you prefer A over B provided you choose A over B. The extra information in desires is not captured behavioristically. Instead, it seems, it requires some kind of “mental intensity of desire”.

And while there is reason to think that the preferences of rational agents at least can be captured numerically—the von Neumann–Morgenstern Representation Theorem suggests this—it seems dubious to think that mental intensities of desire can be captured numerically. But they need to be so captured for DSU to have a hope of success.

The same point holds for desire-satisfaction egoism.

Punishment and amnesia

There is an interesting philosophical literature on whether it is appropriate to punish someone who has amnesia with respect to the wrong they have done.

It has just occurred to me (and it would be surprising if it’s not somewhere in that literature) that it is obvious that rewarding someone who has amnesia with respect to the good they have done is appropriate. To make the intuition clear, imagine the extreme case where the amnesia is due to the heroic action that otherwise would cry out for reward.

If amnesia does not automatically wipe out positive desert, it also does not automatically wipe out negative desert.

Fine-tuning of both physical and bridge laws

A correspondent pointed me to a cool paper by Neil Sinhababu arguing that the theist can’t consistently run a fine-tuning argument on which it is claimed that it is unlikely that the constants in the laws of physics permit intelligent life, because if God exists, then for any constants in the physical laws God can make psychophysical bridge laws that make sure that there is intelligent life. By choosing the right bridge laws, God can make a single electron be conscious, after all. Thus any set of constants in laws of physics is compatible with intelligent life.

A quick response is that in the context of the fine-tuning argument, by “intelligent life” we should probably mean “intelligent biological life”. For instance, angels and conscious electrons don’t count, as they aren’t biological. And in fact, I think, in practice the fine-tuning argument is more about biological life than intelligent life as such. This suggests, however, that proponents of the fine-tuning argument should be clearer here. In particular, we (I am one of the proponents) should emphasize that there is a great value in the existence of biological life, and especially intelligent biological life, and this value is not found in intelligent non-biological life. This value is why a perfect being is not unlikely (or at least not extremely unlikely) to fine-tune the universe to for such life.

Second, I think Sinhababu’s argument points to a more subtle way to formulate the fine-tuning thesis. What’s fine-tuned is not the laws of physics alone, but the combination of the laws of physics and the bridge laws, and they are fine-tuned together in such a way as to ensure that there is neither too little nor too much intelligent life. For instance, a set of psychophysical laws where any computation isomorphic to the kinds of computations our brains results in mental functioning like ours would result not just in panpsychism but omnisapientism—everything around us is sapient. For with some cleverness we can find an isomorphism between the states of a single particle and the states of the brain that preserves causation. But omnisapientism isn’t very good: it damages the significance of morality if everything we do creates and destroys vast numbers of sapient beings.