Aristotelian abstraction

On the Aristotelian account of abstraction, we abstract the forms of things via perception. But here is a problem. First of all, we sometimes have better knowledge of things not perceived than of things perceived. Let’s say you read a detailed scientific book about pangolins, though you’ve never encountered one, while I once saw a koala in a zoo, but don’t much know anything more about them than that they are cute marsupials. It seems quite problematic to say I have the form of the koala in my mind, but you do not have the form of the pangolin. For that would make the mental possession of the form of the thing an unimportant flourish to what really epistemically matters, since clearly you are better off epistemically for reading the book about pangolins than I am for seeing the koala.

Of course, presumably, the author of the pangolin book presumably saw the pangolin. But that doesn’t seem to matter much, either. There are many dinosaur species where the paleontologist knows more about the species than I know about koalas, and yet no human ever perceptually interacted with a dinosaur, but typically only with minerals that have displaced their carcasses.

What should someone committed to the Aristotelian story about abstraction say? Two options come to mind, a modest and an expansive one.

Modest option: It really doesn’t really matter much epistemically whether one has the form of a pangolin or a koala in one’s mind. What matters is the propositional knowledge. However, it is essential to our possession of the propositional knowledge that our thoughts have intentionality, that they refer to the world. And it is crucial to securing intentionality that we have Aristotelian abstraction at the interface between the world and the mind. The triceratops expert’s intentionality with respect to triceratopses is derivative from the causal chain from triceratopses to their corpses to their fossils to the light reflecting from the fossils into the expert’s eyes to (eventually somehow) the expert’s thoughts. Where the causal chain crosses from the world to the mind, we need a transmission of form to ensure intentionality for the whole chain. Maybe the transmission happens when the minerals that have replaced the bones transmit their mineral forms to the expert’s mind, in some mysterious way mediated by the light.

Expansive option: Everything in the world carries the forms of everything nondivine that is causally upstream from itself. The triceratops corpse somehow has the form of the triceratops in it, and so do the bones of the triceratops, and so do the minerals that replace the bones, and so does the light modulated by reflection from the minerals, and so do the electrical impulses in the nerves from the retinal receptors to the brain. It is easier to extract the form when it comes from seeing a live koala than when it comes from seeing fossils, so that a layman can do the former while the scientist is needed to do the latter. Similarly, when you read a book about pangolins, the ink on the page, being causally modulated by the author’s knowledge, carries the form of the pangolin (in addition to any forms naturally contained in the ink, say those of the particles constituting the ink).

Medievals already said something like this about the modulated light, so it’s just a matter of extending the story. And while the problem I am concerned about is one that does not require any science or technology beyond what the medievals had—the medievals knew about the gaining of expertise from books (if anything, they might have overestimated it!)—in a modern setting we it feels like an Aristotelian has to do this. After all, it is hard to deny that one can gain the same kind of knowledge of koalas by looking at them through high-end augmented reality goggles as from directly seeing them with our eyes. Thus, on a form-transmission story, the electrical potentials of the capacitors in the computer memory in the goggles have to somehow carry the form of the koala. But given the many ways that computer memory can be realized (think of magnetized rings versus capacitors versus markings on a CD), it seems plausible that any effect will have to have to be admitted to carry the form of its cause. It is tempting to say the form is only found in substances where there is sufficient data to reconstruct significant information about the causally-upstream object the form is of, but I think is not tenable. Presumably each bacterium is a substance, and we could have a type of biological memory in augmented reality glasses where each bit of information is stored in a different bacterium.

This story coheres very nicely with the essentiality of origins. It is a kind of a reversal of the principle of proportionality of causation on which the reality of the effect is actually or eminently found in the cause: the formal reality of a cause is found in the effect. I think it’s a defensible story. But I also find it hard to believe.

Knowledge and induction

Assume that in fact all ravens are black. Suppose you are sequentiallly observing ravens, and noting each one to be black. After observing n ravens, your evidence that the next raven is black will typically be significantly better than the evidence that all ravens are black. Now at some point, say after observing n_A ravens, your evidence that all ravens are black will rise to the level of knowledge. Thus, plausibly, at an earlier point in the sequence, call it n_N, your evidence that the next raven is black will have risen to the level of knowledge.

Suppose now you have observed n_A − 1 ravens, and you have been handed a raven in an opaque box, which you are certain you are about to open. Since n_N < n_A, at this point you have reached n_N. Hence:

1. You do not know that all ravens are black.

2. You do know that the next raven is black.

3. You know that when you observe the next raven, you will have sufficient evidence for knowledge that all ravens are black.

But note that while you know you will have sufficient evidence for knowledge that all ravens are black, you don’t know that you will know that all ravens are black. There is nothing deeply surprising about this distinction. We might well say about someone who has been subjected to misleading or Gettiered evidence that they have sufficient evidence to know something but nonetheless they don’t know, though the case at hand feels different.

One interesting thing about this case, as I read it, is that it contradicts the thesis that K = E, i.e., that knowledge is evidence. For if knowledge is evidence, and you know that the next raven is black, then you already have the evidence you will gain by observing the next raven, and hence you are already in the position to know that all ravens are black.

Another interesting thing is that it shows that you can know something and nonetheless it be rational for you to investigate it. For you know that the next raven is black, but it’s worth investigating further, since it is only upon observation that your knowledge of the next raven’s blackness turns into the kind of evidence that gives you knowledge that all ravens are black.

All this might make one think that I have misconstrued the epistemic facts, and it is false that there can be a point n_N prior to n_A at which you know that the next raven is black. Here is one way to back up my intuition that there can be such a point n_N < n_A. Suppose that we know for sure we live in a world where the color distributions of birds are always uncorrelated between the males and the females of the species, so that information about the color of members of one sex are irrelevant to the color of members of the other sex. Also assume that you know for sure that ravens have equal numbers of each sex, that you are observing ravens in an alternative female-male-female-male-… sequence, and that your priors for the color distributions of the two sexes of ravens are the same. Then if p_M and p_F are the probabilities that all male ravens are black and all female ravens are black, and p_A is the probability that all ravens are black, then at any given point in the observation sequence p_A = p_Mp_F. Let n_M and n_F be the points in the sequence where you know that all male and all female ravens are black, respectively. Then, n_M < n_A and n_F < n_A, since p_A = p_Mp_F is significantly smaller than either p_M and p_F at all points in the sequence except when we’ve observed all the ravens of one sex, and since p_M and p_F rise fairly gradually as we go through the sequence. Thus, at the point n_A − 1, we will have already reached knowledge that all the male ravens are black and the knowledge that all the female ravens are black. In particular, then, we know that the next raven is black, since if n_A is even, the n_Ath raven is male and we know all male ravens are black, and if n_A is odd, then the n_Ath raven is female, and we know that all female ravens are black.

What's a properly epistemic difference?

There are different types of knowledge: mathematical, geological, biological, a priori, a posteriori, de se, interpersonal, hard-earned, esoteric, very well justified, professional, certain, firm, testimonial, propositional, etc.

When we divide up knowledge, some of the divisions are more properly epistemic than others. For instance, the difference between hard-earned knowledge and easy-come knowledge is not an epistemic difference at all—it is just a difference between how one came by it. If you and I live in villages on the opposite side of a mountain ridge, my knowledge of the waterfall outside our village is easy-come knowledge, while you had to work hard to earn that knowledge, climbing over the mountain ridge. But we are epistemically on par with respect to the knowledge of the waterfall. So, some types or classifications of knowledge do not divide up the knowledge epistemically at all. We might call these “wholly accidental” classifications of knowledge.

Other classifications of knowledge divide up the knowledge by means of the type of justification. For instance, the classic distinction between a priori and a posteriori is like this. Notice, however, that the very same thing can be known a priori and a posteriori. If you use a calculator to find out what 117 × 19 is, you learn it a posteriori, but if you use figure it out in your head, it’s a priori. And when the evidence is equal in strength and the content is the same, we do not have an epistemic difference to mark. (In the past, we might have said that a priori knowledge is better evidenced and maybe even infallible, but we now know that this is not in general true.) I am not sure whether the difference between a priori and a posteriori knowledge is a genuine epistemic difference. After all, the difference between knowledge gained by reading books in French and reading books in German doesn’t seem to be.

Yet other classifications of knowledge divide up the knowledge by the quality or degree of justification. Knowledge comes with better and worse justifications. This is a genuinely epistemic division.

The division of knowledge based on degree of certitude is ambiguous. By degree of certitude one could just mean a psychological feature of the agent, in which can this is not a properly epistemic division, or one could mean the degree of justification, in which case it is, or one could mean a combination of the two (“well-justified confidence”).

Another properly epistemic division of knowledge is with respect to content. Some differences of content do not seem to mark a genuine epistemic difference—say, the difference between biological and geological knowledge. But others do, like the difference between propositional and interpersonal knowledge do. At the same time, some of the content-based classifications include both an accidental and a properly epistemic element. Thus, it might be that interpersonal knowledge by definition must be gained through interpersonal interaction. But the epistemic benefits of interpersonal knowledge can be had without interpersonal interaction. So the concept of interpersonal knowledge may contain some epistemically accidental features about how the knowledge was in fact gained and some properly epistemic features as to the content.

This is all a bit of a mess.

Second person knowledge and reciprocal interaction

A number of philosophers have posited a special “second-person knowledge”, expressible by phrases like “Bob and Alice know each other”. It is often claims that second-person knowledge requires reciprocal interpersonal interaction.

I think this is false. Suppose Alice and Bob live on Earth but have not yet had any interaction. There is a Twin Earth, where by chance everything happens like on Earth, and there are Twin-Alice and Twin-Bob there. Suddenly Earth and Twin-Earth diverge, as follows.

• Twin-Alice and Twin-Bob are teleported away for a vacation on another planet. They don’t enter into our story after this.

• Bob is teleported to Twin-Earth, where he takes the place of Twin-Bob, without noticing anything being different.

• On Earth, Bob is replaced by Robo-Bob, who is a robot who looks just like Bob, but operates on non-intelligent software that generates random human-like behavior.

• On Twin-Earth, Twin-Alice is replaced by Robo-Alice, who looks just like Alice, but operates on non-intelligent software that generates random human-like behavior.

• On Earth, Alice meets Robo-Bob, and they have what to all appearances is a reciprocal interpersonal relationship of the sort that generates mutual second-person knowledge.

• On Twin-Earth, Bob meets Robo-Alice, and they have a similar “relationship”, with Bob behaving normally for his character.

• In these “relationships”, the behavior of Alice and Bob is such that it would be normal for them (given their respective characters) in the context of a normal interpersonal relationships.

At this point, Alice and Bob think that the above “relationships” yield second-person knowledge, but they don’t, because these relationships are with a randomly behaving non-intelligent robot. Let’s add this:

• By chance, on Earth, Robo-Bob happens to behave just like Bob behaves on Twin-Earth.

• By chance, on Twin-Earth, Robo-Alice happens to behave just like Alice behaves on Earth.

Still, Alice and Bob don’t have second-person knowledge in virtue of the “relationships” with robots. For one, they don’t even know with whom that relationship would be. But there is a way in which they have something like Gettiered second-person knowledge with an unknown person. Finally, one more thing happens, a big reveal.

• Alice and Bob are informed of everything that happened above, and they are given knowledge of who the real Alice and Bob are, say by being shown genuine properly labeled photographs of one another.

At this point, I think a case can be made that Alice’s knowledge of Bob is sufficiently close to the kind of knowledge that she would have had if she had been interacting with Bob rather than Robo-Bob. Alice might say: “Since I know that the real Bob was behaving to Robo-Alice just as Robo-Bob was behaving to me, while Robo-Alice was responding to Bob just as I was to Robo-Bob, and both persons were behaving in the normal way for their character, I know as much about Bob from Robo-Bob’s behavior as I would have had I had a normal relationship with Bob.” And Bob might say the same thing, mutatis mutandis.

But there was no reciprocity. Alice’s behavior does affect Bob once Bob learns that Alice behaved just like Robo-Alice, and Bob’s behavior does affect Alice once Alice learns about Bob’s actual behavior, but this is a pair of one-way interactions rather than reciprocal.

There are three things one might say here:

1. Alice and Bob have second-person knowledge of each other.

2. Alice and Bob don’t have second-person knowledge of each other, but what they have has all of the epistemic value of second-person knowledge.

3. There is something complex about interaction that I have a hard time putting my finger on that makes for a relevant difference.

A theological argument that justified true belief is not knowledge

My 13-year-old daughter came up with a rather nice argument against taking knowledge to be nothing but justified true belief.

Jesus tells us that no one knows the day or the hour of his return. But now for each of the 24 possible hours, we can arrange for someone to have reason to believe that that hour is the hour of return. One of these 24 people will then have a justified true belief as to the hour when Jesus returns. If justified true belief is knowledge, then this would contradict what Jesus told us.

Of course, likely, when Jesus said that no one knows the hour, he was probably talking of a specific hour on a specific date—next Tuesday noon, say, rather than a noon in general. But the argument adapts. If the second coming is somewhere in the next 900,000 years, we could divide up the 8 billion people on earth, give each one reason to believe the second coming is during a specific hour during the next 900,000 years, and then one would be right, and would know, if knowledge is justified true belief.

That said, Jesus didn’t say that no one can know the hour, but only that no one knows the hour. Thus as long as no one actually lucks out and has a justified true belief, we have no contradiction to Scripture even if knowledge is justified true belief.

However, apart from the theological ramifications, I think this argument shows that pretty much anything that could be put into language could be known if knowledge is justified true belief. And that is implausible.

This line of argument also damages this line of thought of mine.

Gettiered by degrees

Consider a standard Gettier case. A cutout of a sheep in a field hides a sheep behind it. At that distance, the cutout looks just like a sheep. You have a justified true belief that there is a sheep, but you don’t know it (or so the story goes).

Now imagine that cutout is to some degree transparent, so some of the whiteness you see is in fact from the sheep, and some from the cutout. Consider the continuum of cases as the cutout goes from fully opaque to full transparent. Perhaps it fades from opaque to transparent as you’re looking—all without you knowing that it is fading. When it’s fully or nearly opaque, you are Gettiered and don’t know there is a sheep. When it’s fully or nearly fully transparent, you know there is a sheep.

Supposing that knowledge has a distinctive value over and beyond the value of justified true belief, it seems plausible to think that this value increases monotonically with the transparency of the cutout. If the cutout is becoming more and more transparent before your eyes, you are gaining epistemic value, without noticing you are doing so.

It’s an interesting question: What kind of a function is there from cutout-transparency to value? Is it continuous, or is there a transparency threshold for knowledge at which it jumps discontinuously? If it is continuous, is it linear?

I have to confess that these kinds of questions seem a bit silly, and this gives some ammunitition to the thought that knowledge does not have a distinctive value.

Lifetime epistemic value

Suppose I discover some fact that I never end up using for anything, or even occurrently thinking about after the discovery. Now, knowledge is good. If I learn the fact earlier in life, then I will have had the knowledge for a longer period of time. So is it better for me to have learned the fact earlier in life?

I doubt it. Consider two scenarios. On the first, I learn what the capital of Zambia is just before I enter a ten-year coma. On the second, I learn it right right after I exit the coma. Learning it before the coma gives me ten more years of knowing it. But that seems a worthless gain. I conclude that in the case of non-occurrent knowing, it doesn’t matter much how long I know.

What about for occurrent knowledge? Other things being equal, if I learn some fact earlier in life, I will occurrently know the fact more times. Is that valuable?

I am less sure. But consider a daily ritual where every morning after waking up, before I am capable of any serious intellectual activity, I think to myself: Sheep have four legs. Thereby, I greatly increase the number of instances in which that piece of knowledge is being occurrently known. Again, this doesn’t seem to be worth the bother.

So it seems that neither for non-occurrent or occurrent knowledge is there non-instrumental value in knowing the thing for a longer period of time. Of course, there typically is instrumental value in knowing something for a longer period of time, both instrumental epistemic value—you can use it in your intellectual investigations of more things—and often instrumental pragmatic value.

This suggests the following. If an agent never loses knowledge, then the lifetime non-instrumental value of their knowledge depends on what they have come to know, not on when they have come to know it. The analogous thesis for perfect Bayesian agents and scoring rules is that their lifetime epistemic utility is the epistemic accuracy score at the latest point in their lives. (If we apply this to Sleeping Beauty, we are apt to get halving. But we shouldn’t apply this to Sleeping Beauty, as she forgets about her first wakeup.)

Things are more complicated in the case of agents who do lose knowledge, whether to memory loss, irrationality or misleading evidence. If we count such an agent’s lifetime non-instrumental epistemic value based on all that they have ever known, that means that if they lost knowledge of p, there is no gain to them from getting it back. But obviously they are better off epistemically if they do get it back. Things get messy and complicated now. A short-period loss in old age doesn’t seem as bad as a case where you found out something early in life and then didn’t have it for the rest of your life.

This is getting messy.

Predictability and epistemic utility

You’re thinking whether to become an assembly-line worker or an artist. Then you reflect on the value of knowledge. And you become a factory worker, on the grounds that if you become an assembly-line worker, you will know what you’ll be doing every working day of your future, but if you’re an artist, your activities will be unpredictable.

Some remarks. First, there is something perverse about using the value of knowledge in this way. The normal way to pursue the value of knowledge is to find out things that are independent of your pursuit. But here you are pursuing knowledge by making there be less to know about the world (or your world). Yet, paradoxically, it sure seems like the line of thought above makes sense.

Second, the my initial story depends on Molinism being false. For if there are comprehensive subjective conditionals of free will, then by becoming an artist you get to know the conditionals about what you would do in the various artistic situations you’re in. But on the assembly line story, you don’t get to know these. So the Molinist doesn’t have the paradox. I suppose that’s a bit of evidence for Molinism.

A variant of the preface paradox

Imagine being given a list generated as follows, without being told how it was generated:

1. A randomly chosen set of 2000 mutually consistent propositions that you justifiedly believe, subject to the constraint that they are consistent.

Given your fallibility, it’s highly probable that the list contains multiple falsehoods. As you look over the list, you say to yourself about each one: “Yup, that sounds right.” However, given what you know about your fallibility, you should also say: “I think some of these are false, though.” You will thus incline to disbelieve the conjunction of these propositions.

But suppose instead you were handed a list generated as follows, again without being told how it was generated:

2. A randomly chosen set of 2000 propositions that you know.

This list would look to you just like the first one. Thus, you would say about it exactly what you would have said about the first one. To each one, you would say: “Yup, that sounds right.” But then on reflection you would say: “I think some of these are false, though.” You will thus incline to disbelieve the conjunction of these propositions, just as in the first case. However, while in the first case you are correct in disbelieving, in the second you are mistaken in disbelieving.

But in any case, if you incline to disbelieve something, then you don’t know it. Hence, you do not know the conjunction of the 2000 randomly chosen propositions that you know, and so knowledge is not closed under conjunction.

Omniscience and vagueness

Suppose there is metaphysical vagueness, say that it’s metaphysically vague whether Bob is bald. God cannot believe that Bob is bald, since then Bob is bald. God cannot believe that Bob is not bald, since then Bob is not bald. Does God simply suspend judgment?

Here is a neat solution for the classical theist. Classical theists believe in divine simplicity. Divine simplicity requires an extrinsic constitution model of divine belief or knowledge in the case of contingent things. Suppose a belief version. Then, plausibly, God’s beliefs about contingent things are partly constituted by the realities they are about. Hence, it is plausible that when a reality is vague, it is vague whether God believes in this reality.

Here is another solution. If we think of belief as taking-as-true and disbelief as taking-as-false, we should suppose a third state of taking-as-vague. Then we say that for every proposition, God has a belief, disbelief or third state, as the case might be.

Towards quantifying the good of success

Yesterday, I argued that the good of success contributes to one’s well-being at the time of one’s striving for success rather than at the time of the success itself.

It seems, then, that the longer you are striving, the longer the amount of time that you are having the good of success. Is that right?

We do think that way. You work on a book for five years. Success is sweeter than if you work on a book for one year.

But only other things being equal. It’s not really the length of time by itself. It’s something like your total personal investment in the project, to which time is only one contribution. Gently churning butter for an hour while multitasking other things (using a pedal-powered churn, for instance) does not get you more good of success than churning butter with maximum effort for fifteen minutes, if the outputs are the same.

We might imagine—I am not sure this is right—that the good of success is variably spread out over the time of striving in proportion to the degree of striving at any given time.

What else goes into the value of success besides total personal investment? Another ingredient is the actual value of the product. If you’ve decided to count the hairs on your toes, success is worth very little. Furthermore, the actual value of the product needs to be reduced in proportion to the degree to which you contributed.

Thus, if Alice and Bob both churned butter and produced n pounds, the value of the output is something like bn, where b is the value of butter per pound. If the investments put in by Alice and Bob are I_A and I_B, then Alice’s share of the value is bnI_A/(I_A+I_B). But since the value of success is proportional also to the absolute investment, I think that the considerations given thus far yield a formula for the value of success for Alice proportional to:

• bnI_A²/(I_A+I_B).

Next note that one way to think about the degree to which you contributed is to think as above—what fraction of the total investment is yours. However, even if you are the only person working on the project, the degree of your contribution may be low. Let’s say that you have moved into a house with a mint bush. Mint bushes are aggressive. They grow well with little care (or so we’ve found). But you do water it. The mint bush added half a pound to its weight at the end of the season. You don’t, however, get credit for all of that pound, since even if you hadn’t watered it, it would likely have grown, just not as much. So you only get credit for the portion of the output that is “yours”. Moreover, sometimes things work probabilistically. If the success is mostly a matter of chance given your investment, I think you only get good-of-success credit in proportion to the chance of success—but I am not completely sure of this.

But here is something that makes me a little uncertain of the above reasoning. Suppose that you have some process where the output is linearly dependent on the investment of effort. You invest I, and you get something of value cI for some proportionality constant c. By the above account, to get the value of success, you should multiply this by I again, since the value of success is proportional to both the value of the output and the effort put in. Thus, you get cI². But is it really the case that when you double the effort you quadruple the value of the success? Maybe. That would be interesting! Or are we double-counting I?

Another question. When we talk about the value of the output, is that the objective value, or the value you put on it, or some combination of the two? Counting the hairs on your toes has little objective value, but what if you think it has significant value? Doesn’t success then have significant value? I suspect not.

But what about activities where the value comes only from your pursuit, such as when you try to win at solitaire or run a mile as fast as you can? In those cases it’s harder to separate the value of the output from the value you put on it. My guess is that in those cases there is still an objective value of the output, but this objective value is imposed by your exercise of normative power—by pursuing certain kinds of goals we can make the goal have value.

Let’s come back to counting hairs on toes. If you’re doing it solely for the sake of the value of knowledge, this has (in typical circumstances) little objective value. But if your hobby is counting difficult to count things, then maybe there is additional value, beyond that of trivial knowledge, in the result.

I suspect there are further complications. Human normativity is messy.

And don’t ask me how this applies to God. On the one hand, it takes no effort for God to produce any effect. On the other hand, by divine simplicity God is perfectly invested in everything he does. But since my metaethics is kind-relative, I am happy with the idea that this will go very differently for God than for us.

Aquinas on God's knowledge of propositions

Does God know that the sky is blue?

That seems like a silly question. It’s not like we’re asking whether God knows future contingents, or counterfactuals of freedom. That the sky is blue is something that it is utterly unproblematic for God to know.

Except that it is tempting to say that God has no propositional knowledge, and knowing that the sky is blue is knowing a proposition.

It seems that Aquinas answers the question in Summa Theologiae I.14.14: “God knows all the propositions that can be formulated” (that’s in Freddoso’s translation; the older Dominican translation talks of “enunciable things”, but I think that doesn’t affect what I am going to say). It seems that God does have propositional knowledge, albeit not in the divided or successive way that we do.

But what he is up to in I.14.14 is not what it initially sounds like to the analytic philosopher’s ear.

For consider Thomas’s argument in I.14.14 that God knows all formulable propositions:

Since (a) to formulate propositions lies within the power of our intellect, and since (b), as was explained above (a. 9), God knows whatever lies within either His own power or the power of a creature, it must be the case that God knows all the propositions that can be formulated.

But now notice an ambiguity in “God knows the proposition that the sky is blue.” In one sense, which I will call “alethic”, this just means God knows that the sky is blue. In another sense, the “objectual”, it means that God knows a certain abstract object, the proposition that the sky is blue. In the objectual sense, God also knows the proposition that the sky is green—God fully knows that proposition, just as he knows other objects, like the person Socrates. But God does not, of course, have the alethic knowledge here—God does not know that the sky is green, because the sky is not green.

If it was the alethic sense that Thomas was after, his argument would be invalid. For in article 9, the discussion clearly concerns objectual knowledge. Exactly the same argument establishes that God knows the proposition that the sky is green as that he knows the proposition that the sky is blue. Furthermore, the Biblical quote Thomas gives in support of his view is “The Lord knows the thoughts of men” (Psalm 93:11). But the Lord doesn’t know all of them to be true, doesn’t know all of them alethically, because not all of the thoughts of humans are true.

Furthermore, if it was alethic knowledge that Aquinas was after, it would be inaccurate to say God knows all propositions. For only “half” of the propositions can be known alethically—the true ones!

All that said, I think we can still bootstrap from the objectual to the alethic knowledge. God’s knowledge of objects is perfect (Aquinas relies on this perfection multiple times in Question 14) and hence complete. If God knows something, God also knows all of its properties, intrinsic and relational. Thus, if God knows a proposition objectually, and that proposition has a truth value, God knows that truth value. In particular, if that proposition is true, God knows that it is true. And that seems to suffice for counting as knowing the proposition alethically.

So, it looks like Aquinas is committed to God objectually knowing both the propositions that the sky is green and that the sky is blue, and also knowing that the former is false and the latter is true—which seems to be enough for God to count as knowing that the sky is blue. (Though I could see this last point getting questioned.)

Acting without knowledge of rightness

Some philosophers think that for your right action to be morally worthy you have to know that the action is right.

On the contrary, there are cases where an action is even more morally worthy when you don’t know it’s right.

1. Alice is tasked with a dangerous mission to rescue hikers stranded on a mountain. She knows it’s right, and she fulfills the mission.

2. Bob is tasked with a dangerous mission to rescue hikers stranded on a mountain. He knows it’s right, but then just before he heads out, a clever philosopher gives him a powerful argument that there is no right or wrong. He is not fully convinced, but he has no time to figure out whether the argument works before the mission starts. Instead, he reasons quickly: “Well, there is a 50% chance that the argument is sound and there is no such thing as right and wrong, in which case at least I’m not doing anything wrong by rescuing. But there is a 50% chance that there is such a thing as right and wrong, and if anything is right, it’s rescuing these hikers.” And he fulfills the mission.

Bob’s action is, I think, even more worthy and praiseworthy than Alice’s. For while Alice risks her life for a certainty of doing the right thing, Bob is willing to risk his life in the face of uncertainty. Some people would take the uncertainty as an excuse, but Bob does not.

Being known

The obvious analysis of “p is known” is:

1. There is someone who knows p.

But this obvious analysis doesn’t seem correct, or at least there is an interesting use of “is known” that doesn’t fit (1). Imagine a mathematics paper that says: “The necessary and sufficient conditions for q are known (Smith, 1967).” But what if the conditions are long and complicated, so that no one can keep them all in mind? What if no one who read Smith’s 1967 paper remembers all the conditions? Then no one knows the conditions, even though it is still true that the conditions “are known”.

Thus, (1) is not necessary for a proposition to be known. Nor is this a rare case. I expect that more than half of the mathematics articles from half a century ago contain some theorem or at least lemma that is known but which no one knows any more.

I suspect that (1) is not sufficient either. Suppose Alice is dying of thirst on a desert island. Someone, namely Alice, knows that she is dying of thirst, but it doesn’t seem right to say that it is known that she is dying of thirst.

So if it is neither necessary nor sufficient for p to be known that someone knows p, what does it mean to say that p is known? Roughly, I think, it has something to do with accessibility. Very roughly:

2. Somebody has known p, and the knowledge is accessible to anyone who has appropriate skill and time.

It’s really hard to specify the appropriateness condition, however.

Does all this matter?

I suspect so. There is a value to something being known. When we talk of scientists advancing “human knowledge”, it is something like this “being known” that we are talking about.

Imagine that a scientist discovers p. She presents p at a conference where 20 experts learn p from her. Then she publishes it in a journal when 100 more people learn it. Then a Youtuber picks it up and now a million people know it.

If we understand the value of knowledge as something like the sum of epistemic utilities across humankind, then the successive increments in value go like this: first, we have a move from zero to some positive value V when the scientist discovers p. Then at the conference, the value jumps from V to 21V. Then after publication it goes from 21V to 121V. Then given Youtube, it goes from 121V to 100121V. The jump at initial discovery is by far the smallest, and the biggest leap is when the discovery is publicized. This strikes me as wrong. The big leap in value is when p becomes known, which either happens when the scientist discovers it or when it is presented at the conference. The rest is valuable, but not so big in terms of the value of “human knowledge”.

Competent language use without knowledge

I can competently use a word without knowing what the word means. Just imagine some Gettier case, such as that my English teacher tried to teach me a falsehood about what “lynx” means, but due to themselves misremembering what the word means, they taught me the correct meaning. Justified true belief is clearly enough for competent use.

But if I then use “lynx”, even though I don’t know what the word means, I do know what I mean by it. Could one manufacture a case where I competently use a word but don’t even know what I mean by it?

Maybe. Suppose I am a student and a philosopher professor convinces me that I am so confused that don’t know what I mean when I use the word “supervenience” in a paper. I stop using the word. But then someone comments on an old online post of mine from the same period as the paper, in which post I used “supervenience”. The commenter praises how insightfully I have grasped the essence of the concept. This someone uses a false name, that of an eminent philosopher. I come to believe on the supposed authority of this person that I meant by “supervenience” what I in fact did mean by it, and I resume using it. But the authority is false. It seems that now I am using the word without knowing what I mean by it. And I could be entirely competent.

Open-mindedness and epistemic thresholds

Fix a proposition p, and let T(r) and F(r) be the utilities of assigning credence r to p when p is true and false, respectively. The utilities here might be epistemic or of some other sort, like prudential, overall human, etc. We can call the pair T and F the score for p.

Say that the score T and F is open-minded provided that expected utility calculations based on T and F can never require you to ignore evidence, assuming that evidence is updated on in a Bayesian way. Assuming the technical condition that there is another logically independent event (else it doesn’t make sense to talk about updating on evidence), this turns out to be equivalent to saying that the function G(r) = rT(r) + (1−r)F(r) is convex. The function G(r) represents your expected value for your utility when your credence is r.

If G is a convex function, then it is continuous on the open interval (0,1). This implies that if one of the functions T or F has a discontinuity somewhere in (0,1), then the other function has a discontinuity at the same location. In particular, the points I made in yesterday’s post about the value of knowledge and anti-knowledge carry through for open-minded and not just proper scoring rules, assuming our technical condition.

Moreover, we can quantify this discontinuity. Given open-mindedness and our technical condiiton, if T has a jump of size δ at credence r (e.g., in the sense that the one-sided limits exist and differ by y), then F has a jump of size rδ/(1−r) at the same point. In particular, if r > 1/2, then if T has a jump of a given size at r, F has a larger jump at r.

I think this gives one some reason to deny that there are epistemically important thresholds strictly between 1/2 and 1, such as the threshold between non-belief and belief, or between non-knowledge and knowledge, even if the location of the thresholds depends on the proposition in question. For if there are such thresholds, then now imagine cases of propositions p with the property that it is very important to reach a threshold if p is true while one’s credence matters very little if p is false. In such a case, T will have a larger jump at the threshold than F, and so we will have a violation of open-mindedness.

Here are three examples of such propositions:

• There are objective norms

• God exists

• I am not a Boltzmann brain.

There are two directions to move from here. The first is to conclude that because open-mindedness is so plausible, we should deny that there are epistemically important thresholds. The second is to say that in the case of such special propositions, open-mindedness is not a requirement.

I wondered initially whether a similar argument doesn’t apply in the absence of discontinuities. Could one have T and F be openminded even though T continuously increases a lot faster than F decreases? The answer is positive. For instance the pair T(r) = e^10r and F(r) =  − r is open-minded (though not proper), even though T increases a lot faster than F decreases. (Of course, there are other things to be said against this pair. If that pair is your utility, and you find yourself with credence 1/2, you will increase your expected utility by switching your credence to 1 without any evidence.)

Knowledge and anti-knowledge

Suppose knowledge has a non-infinitesimal value. Now imagine that you continuously gain evidence for some true proposition p, until your evidence is sufficient for knowledge. If you’re rational, your credence will rise continuously with the evidence. But if knowledge has a non-infinitesimal value, your epistemic utility with respect to p will have a discontinuous jump precisely when you attain knowledge. Further, I will assume that the transition to knowledge happens at a credence strictly bigger than 1/2 (that’s obvious) and strictly less than 1 (Descartes will dispute this).

But this leads to an interesting and slightly implausible consequence. Let T(r) be the epistemic utility of assigning evidence-based credence r to p when p is true, and let F(r) be the epistemic utility of assigning evidence-based credence r to p when p is false. Plausibly, T is a strictly increasing function (being more confident in a truth is good) and F is a strictly decreasing function (being more confident in a falsehood is bad). Furthermore, the pair T and F plausibly yields a proper scoring rule: whatever one’s credence, one doesn’t have an expectation that some other credence would be epistemically better.

It is not difficult to see that these constraints imply that if T has a discontinuity at some point 1/2 < r_K < 1, so does F. The discontinuity in F implies that as we become more and more confident in the falsehood p, suddenly we have a discontinuous downward jump in utility. That jump occurs precisely at r_K, namely when we gain what we might call “anti-knowledge”: when one’s evidence for a falsehood becomes so strong that it would constitute knowledge if the proposition were true.

Now, there potentially are some points where we might plausibly think that epistemic utility of having a credence in a falsehood takes a discontinuous downward jump. These points are:

• 1, where we become certain of the falsehood

• r_B, the threshold of belief, where the credence becomes so high that we count as believing the falsehood

• 1/2, where we start to become more confident in the falsehood p than the truth not-p

• 1 − r_B, where we stop believing not-p, and

• 0, where the falsehood p becomes an epistemic possibility.

But presumably r_K is strictly between r_B and 1, and hence r_K is no one of these points. Is it plausible to think that there is a discontinuous downward jump in epistemic utility when we achieve anti-knowledge by crossing the threshold r_K in a falsehood.

I am incline to say not. But that forces me to say that there is no discontinuous upward jump in epistemic utility once we gain knowledge.

On the other hand, one might think that the worst kind of ignorance is when you’re wrong but you think you have knowledge, and that’s kind of like the anti-knowledge point.

Knowing what it's like to see green

You know what it’s like to see green. Close your eyes. Do you still know what it’s like to see green?

I think so.

Maybe you got lucky and saw some green patches while closing your eyes. But I am not assuming that happened. Even if you saw no green patches, you knew what it is like to see green.

Philosophers who are really taken with qualia sometimes say that:

1. Our knowledge of what it is like to see green could only be conferred on me by having an experience of green.

But if I have the knowledge of what it is like to see green when I am not experiencing green, then that can’t be right. For whatever state I am in when not experiencing green but knowing what it’s like to see green is a state that God could gift me with without ever giving me an experience of green. (One might worry that then it wouldn’t be knowledge, but something like true belief. But God could testify to the accuracy of my state, and that would make it knowledge.)

Perhaps, however, we can say this. When your eyes are closed and you see no green patches, you know what it’s like to see green in virtue of having the ability to visualize green, an ability that generates experiences of green. If so, we might weaken (1) to:

2. Our knowledge of what it is like to see green could only be conferred on me by having an experience of green or an ability to generate such an experience at will by visual imagination.

We still have a conceptual connection between knowledge of the qualia and experience of the qualia then.

But I think (2) is still questionable. First, it seems to equivocate on “knowledge”. Knowledge grounded in abilities seems to be knowledge-how, and that’s not what the advocates of qualia are talking about.

Second, suppose you’ve grown up never seeing green. And then God gives you an ability to generate an experience of green at will by visual imagination: if you “squint your imagination” thus-and-so, you will see a green patch. But you’ve never so squinted yet. It seems odd to say you know what it’s like to see green.

Third, our powers of visual imagination vary significantly. Surely I know what it’s like to see paradigm instances of green, say the green of a lawn in an area what water is plentiful. If I try to imagine a green patch, if I get lucky, my mind’s eye presents to me a patch of something dim, muddy and greenish, or maybe a lime green flash. I can’t imagine a paradigm instance of green. And yet surely, I know what it’s like to see paradigm instances of green. It seems implausible to think that when my eyes are closed my knowledge of what it’s like to see green (and even paradigm green) is grounded in my ability to visualize these dim non-paradigm instances.

It seems to me that what the qualia fanatic should say is that:

3. We only know what it’s like to see green when we are experiencing green.

But I think that weakens arguments from qualia against materialism because (3) is more than a little counterintuitive.

Knowledge of qualia

Suppose epiphenomenalism is true about qualia, so qualia are nonphysical properties that have no causal impact on anything. Let w₀ be the actual world and let w₁ be a world which is exactly like the actual world, except that (a) there are no qualia (so it’s a zombie world) and (b) instead of qualia, there are causally inefficacious nonphysical properties that have a logical structure isomorphic to the qualia of our world, and that occur in the corresponding places in the spatiotemporal and causal nexuses. Call these properties “epis”.

The following seems pretty obvious to me:

1. In w₁, nobody knows about the epis.

But the relationship of our beliefs about qualia to the qualia themselves seems to be exactly like the relationship of the denizens of w₁ to the epis. In particular, neither are any of their beliefs caused by the obtaining of epis, nor are any of our beliefs caused by the obtaining of qualia, since both are epiphenomenal. So, plausibly:

2. If in w₁, nobody knows about the epis, then in w₀, nobody knows about the qualia.

Conclusion:

3. Nobody knows about the qualia.

But of course we do! So epiphenomenalism is false.

Teaching virtue

A famous Socratic question is whether virtue can be taught. This argument may seem to settle the question:

1. If vice can be taught, virtue can be taught.

2. Vice can be taught. (Clear empirical fact!)

3. So, virtue can be taught.

Well, except that what I labeled as a clear empirical fact is not something that Socrates would accept. I think Socrates reads “to teach” as a success verb, with a necessary condition for teaching being the conveyance of knowledge. In other words, it’s not possible to teach falsehood, since knowledge is always of the truth, and presumably in “teaching” vice one is “teaching” falsehoods such as that greed is good.

That said, if we understand “to teach” in a less Socratic way, as didactic conveyance of views, skills and behavioral traits, then (2) is a clear empirical fact, and (1) is plausible, and hence (3) is plausible.

That said, it would not be surprising if it were harder to teach virtue even in this non-Socratic sense than it is to teach vice. After all, it is surely harder to teach someone to swim well than to swim badly.