Showing posts with label in-vitro fertilization. Show all posts
Showing posts with label in-vitro fertilization. Show all posts

Thursday, July 30, 2020

Reproduction and the holiness of God

  1. Necessarily, every finite person is in the image and likeness of God.

  2. We should not make something in the image and likeness of God except when we have good positive reason to think God gave us permission to do so.

  3. The only case in which we have good positive reason to think God gave us permission to make something in the image and likeness of God is through marital intercourse.

  4. So, we should not engage in either in-vitro fertilization or the production of strong Artificial Intelligence.

The philosophically difficult task here would be to analyze the concept of “image and likeness of God”. The main controversial premise in the argument, however, is (2). I think it somehow follows from the holiness of God.

Wednesday, July 22, 2020

In-vitro fertilization and artificial intelligence

Catholics believe that:

  1. The only permissible method of human reproduction is marital intercourse.

Supposing we accept (1), we are led to this interesting question:

  1. Is it permissible for humans to produce non-human persons by means other than marital intercourse?

It seems to me that a positive answer to (2) would fit poorly with (1). First of all, it would be very strange if we could, say, clone Homo neanderthalensis, or produce them by IVF, but not so for Homo sapiens. But perhaps “human” in (1) and (2) is understood broadly enough to include Neanderthals. It still seems that a positive answer to (2) would be implausible given (1). Imagine that there were a separate evolutionary development starting with some ape and leading to an intelligent hominid definitely different from humans, but rather humanlike in behavior. It would be odd to say that we may clone them but can’t clone us.

This suggests to me that if we accept (1), we should probably answer (2) in the negative. Moreover, the best explanation of (1) leads to a negative answer to (2). For the best explanation of (1) is that human beings are something sacred, and sacred things should not be produced without fairly specific divine permission. It is plausible that we have such permission in the case human marital coital reproduction, but we have no evidence of such permission elsewhere. But all persons are sacred (that’s one of the great lessons of personalism). So, absent evidence of specific divine permission, we should assume that it is wrong for us to produce non-human persons by means other than marital intercourse. Moreover, it is dubious that we have been given permission to produce non-human persons by means of marital intercourse. So, we should just assume that:

  1. It is wrong for us to produce non-human persons.

Moreover, if this is wrong, it’s probably pretty seriously wrong. So we also shouldn’t take significant risks of producing non-human persons. This means that unless we are pretty confident that a computer whose behavior was person-like still wouldn’t be a person, we ought to draw a line in our AI research and stop short of the production of computers with person-like behavior.

Do we have grounds for such confidence? I don’t know that we do. Even if dualism is true and even if the souls of persons are directly created by God, maybe God has a general policy of creating a soul whenever matter is arranged in a way that makes it capable of supporting person-like behavior.

But perhaps is reasonable to think that such a divine policy would only extend to living things?

Wednesday, January 20, 2016

A new solution to the non-identity problem?

Molly Gardner in a piece that just came out offers an interesting new solution to the non-identity problem, the problem of making sense of benefits and harms to people who wouldn't exist were it not for our actions of benefiting or harming. Gardner's suggestion is:

A state of affairs, A, is a benefit for an individual, S, just in case if it were true that both S existed and A did not obtain, then S would be worse off in some respect.
This is a clever solution: normally when evaluating whether an action benefits or harms someone, we simply ask how they would have done had we not done the action; but Gardner wants us further to keep fixed that the patient exists.

But clever as it is, it looks to me that it fails. First, suppose that a strong essentiality of origins thesis obtains. Then whenever we benefit or harm a future person, that person couldn't exist without our action. But that means that Gardner's conditional becomes a per impossibile conditional. And concepts of ethical importance should not be defined in terms of something as poorly understood and as controversial as counterpossible conditionals.

Suppose now that there is no strong essentiality of origins thesis. Then, plausibly, a person who was conceived through coitus could also have been conceived through IVF, at least if the same sperm and egg were involved. Now suppose that where the couple lives, IVF technology is highly experimental and works so poorly that children conceived through IVF end up having all sorts of nasty health problems. The couple is wicked and doesn't care about the health of their children, but they also haven't even heard of IVF, and so they conceive Sally the natural way. Now let's consider Gardner's conditional. What would have happened had the child existed and the couple not engaged in coitus? Well, the closest possible worlds where Sally exists and the couple did not have intercourse are worlds where the couple engaged in a poorly-functioning IVF treatment, and hence worlds where Sally has nasty health problems. So the couple benefited Sally by engaging in coitus.

The conclusion that the couple benefited Sally by coitus is, I think, true. For I believe it is always good to exist. But it is clear that Gardner doesn't want to suppose that existence is always a good. And if existence is not always a good, then we can suppose a scenario like this: Sally is going to have an on-balance bad life if she is conceived by coitus, and an on-balance worse life if she is conceived by IVF. By Gardner's criterion, the couple has benefited Sally through coitus, even though Sally's life is on-balance bad. This is surely mistaken. One might say that the couple benefited Sally by engaging in coitus rather than IVF. But since they never even considered IVF, one can't conclude that they benefited Sally simpliciter. (If Sam gives Jim a mild electric shock, he harms Jim simpliciter, but he benefits Jim by giving him a mild rather than severe shock.)

And even if we grant--as in the end we should--that existence is always good, Gardner's conditional gives us the wrong reason for thinking that the couple benefited Sally. For the benefit to Sally has nothing to do with the fact that Sally would have been worse off in the nearby worlds where she existed through IVF.

And even if essentiality of origins is true, the argument concerning Sally works. For it is still true that, per impossibile, had Sally existed but without her parents having intercourse, she would have existed through IVF and hence had very poor health.

The problem with Gardner's approach is this: the worlds that are relevant to the evaluation of her counterfactual may simply be irrelevant to the question of benefit or harm simpliciter.

Friday, June 6, 2014

In-vitro fertilization and marriage

Traditional sexual norms say that non-marital sex is impermissible. Those who think in-vitro fertilization (IVF) is permissible but who want to hold on to this norms now need to decide:

  • Is (voluntary[note 1]) reproduction outside of marriage permissible?
It would be odd, I think, to say that premarital sex is impermissible but premarital reproduction is permissible. First, the main natural law reasons for thinking premarital sex is impermissible involve the reproductive potential of sex. Second, it seems that children bind a couple together much in the way that sex does.

Suppose, then, that the rule that sex needs to be within marriage extends to reproduction. This leads to interesting questions at the beginning and end of a marriage.

End: Suppose one member of a married couple is about to die. Can that spouse give consent to IVF if the IVF would have to occur after death?

It would be in principle permissible (though often prudentially inadvisable) for a married couple to have sexual relations even if they somehow foresee that (a) fertilization will likely occur in a few days but (b) the man will die before fertilization occurs. By the same token, if IVF is permissible, it might be permissible for the couple to give consent to IVF during the marriage, even though the actual reproduction occurs after death (and hence after the end of the marriage).

Beginning: Suppose the couple's gametes are already available to medical professionals prior to their marriage (say, due to some kind of surgery). Is it permissible for an unmarried couple to give their authorization for the union of the gametes on the understanding that the medical professionals will only unite the gametes after the couple is married?

If this happens, the child will not be in any way a fruit of the marriage, since no marital action—not even the giving of consent—is involved in the reproduction. The connection between the child and the marriage would be merely temporal. This would not do justice to the connection between reproduction and marriage. (One can also come up with an argument for this conclusion by combining the Beginning and End scenarios.)

If this is right, then the crucial thing for the extension of the traditional sexual norm to IVF would be the provision of consent: it is this that must occur during marriage in order that the child be the fruit of the marriage.

But this in turn emphasizes once again the way that in non-coital reproduction the essential involvement by the couple is simply the provision of consent. And that troubles me, even if I do not yet have a fully worked out argument against IVF on this basis (though I do have other arguments against IVF here).